Đề thi Trung học phổ thông Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2017 - Trường THPT Trần Phú (Có đáp án)

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017 
 Môn: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề 
( Đề thi gồm có 04 trang)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1. 	A advises 	B.raises 	C.devises 	D.goes
Question 2.	A.hour	B.honest 	C.honor 	D.host
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 
Question 3.	A.economic 	B.experience 	C.entertainment 	 D.introduction.
Question 4.	A.extinction 	B.animal 	C.classify 	D.primary.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5. When we arrived at the station, the train has already left.
 A B C D 
Question 6. They speak English well because they practise speak it every day 
	 A	 B	 C D 
Question 7. If I were you, I would have forgotten about buying a new car. 
	 A 	 B	 C D 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 8. Almost everyone fails______ the driver’s test on the first try.
	A. passing	B. to have passed	C. to pass 	D. in passing
Question 9. In general, by the second year of production, the price of a new piece of technology_______ Significantly.
	A. will decreased	B. has decreased	
	C. will have decreased 	D. will has decreased
Question 10. My dad is a _____ person, always attentive to every family member.
 	 A. caring	B. careful	C. careless	D. carefree
Question 11. I never listen to ____ radio. In fact I haven’t got ____ radio.
 	A. a / a	B. a / the	C. the / the 	D. the / a
Question 12. If one of the participants in a conversation wonders______ , no real communication has taken place.
	A. what said the other person	B. what the other person said	
	C. what did the other person say 	D. what was the other person saying
Question 13. Deserts are often formed ______ they are cut off from rain-bearing winds by the surrounding mountain ranges.
	A. because	B. in spite of 	C. so 	D. due to 
Question 14. _________is a global list of endangered and rare species.
	A. The Red List	B. The Red Book	C. Vulnerable animals 	D. Rare animals 
Question 15. Britney Spears is famous ____ her beautiful face and sweet voice.
 A. by 	B. with 	C. for	D. of
Question 16. Don’t phone Ann now. She ____ be having lunch.
 	 A. has to 	B. can 	C. must 	D. might
Question 17. The 22nd SEA Games consisted of athletes from eleven _____ countries.
	 A. participate 	B. participant	C. participation	D. participating
Question 18. “Why don’t you take _____ tennis? It will help you become fitter”.
 	A. up 	B. on 	C. in 	D. to
Question 19. "The natural environment in which a plant or animals lives" means ________
A. conservation	 B. extinction 	 C. biodiversity	 D. habitat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges
Question 20.Peter : “Let’s go camping”.
 Mary: “_____________”.
A. Oh, what’s a pity. 	B.I’m sorry to hear that. 
C. Oh, that’s a good idea. 	D.You are welcome.
Question 21. Tom: “Your hairstyle is terrific, Cindy !”
 Cindy: “__________________”
 A. Thank you 	B. Congratulations 	C. It’s all right D. Don’t mention it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
 Question 22: Before the interview, you have to send a letter of application and your resume to the company.
	A. recommendation	 B. reference	C. photograph	D. curriculum vitae 
Question 23: / How many countries participated in the 22nd SEA Games?
	A. took place	B.took part	C.took care 	D. took hand
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: We ought to keep these proposals secret from the chairman for the time being.
A. accessible	C. frequented
B. revealed	D. lively
Question25: They protested about the inhumane treatment of the prisoners.
A. vicious	B. warmhearted	C. callous	D. coldblooded
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions
Question 26: Jane can swim farther than I can.
	A. I can’t swim as far as Jane.	
B. Jane can’t swim as far as I can.
	C. I can’t swim as far as Jane.	
D. Jane can swim as far as I can.
Question 27: The coffee was too hot for me to drink.
	A. The coffee is so hot that I can’t drink it.
	B. The coffee is so hot that I can’t drink.
	C. The coffee was so hot that I couldn’t drink it.
	D. The coffee was so hot that I couldn’t drink.
Question 28: People are using computers in all kinds of work.
	A. Computers are being used in all kinds of work.
	B. All kinds of work are used by computers.
	C. Computers are used in all kinds of work.
	D. All kinds of work are being used by people.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. 16. My mother is very busy at work but she takes good care of her chidren.
 A. In spite of being very busy at work but my mother takes good care of her children.
 	B. Although my mother is very busy at work, she takes good care of her children.
 C. Although my mother is very busy at work, she doesn’t take good care of her children. 
 	D. Despite my mother is very busy at work, she takes good care of her children.
Question 30. Turn off all the switches before leaving the room.
	A. All the switches must be turned off before leaving the room.
	B. All the switches must be turned off before you leave the room.
	C. You must leave the room before turning off all the switches.
	D. You must leave the room as soon as you turn off all the switches.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 40.
On December 10, 2006, I was going through some hard time. The landlady did not want to release the house any more so I had to (31) _____ and only had one month to find a place. Because Christmas was coming and it was difficult for me to (32) _____ a suitable accommodation. I had only some money (33) _____. I could not buy a Christmas tree and some presents for my three boys, (34) _____ I had to use the money to find a place to live. Tome, it broke my heart as I could not prepare the Christmas for my three boys. I have been their only parent since my husband (35) _____ away two years ago. I was so sad and everything was getting on my nerves. Although I managed to solve the problem myself I could not help (36) _____ my sons about the things. When I suddenly woke up at midnight, I found my eldest son was sitting (37) _____me. He kissed me and said, "Don't worry, Mum. We love you very much and always stand by you (38) ____ happens." At the moment I started weeping, grabbed him and kissed him. His words and love made me (39) _____ all about what I was stressing about.
In fact ever since that moment, I have realized that I can overcome any problems thanks to my sons' love. The most important thing of my life is that my boys are safe and healthy, and they bring me joy all the time. The memory (40) _____ me that nothing really matters, when I have the love of my children.
Question 31. A. transfer 	 B. convert 	C. move 	D. change
Question 32. A. notice 	 B. watch 	C. find 	D. see
Question 33. A. leave 	 B. to leave 	C. leaving 	D. left
Question 34. A. because 	 B. although 	C. as though 	D. if
Question 35. A. passes 	 B. passed 	C. has passed 	D. was passing
Question 36. A. tell 	 B. to tell 	C. told 	D. telling
Question 37. A. by 	 B. next 	C. over 	D. up
Question38. A. whenever B. whatever 	C. whoever 	D. however
Question39. A. forget 	 B. to forget 	C. forgot 	D. forgetting
Question 40.A. remembers B. minds 	C. reminds 	D. misses
Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best answer to the questions by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. 
 	 The 24th SEA Games was held from 6th to 15th December, 2007 in three provinces in Thailand, namely Nakhon Ratchsima, Bangkok, and Chon Buri. In fact, the 2007 SEA Games was to be hosted by Singapore, but Singapore gave up the chance, as its new national sports stadium is under construction and will not be completed in time for the next SEA Games. Thailand was then asked by The SEA Games Federation to host this regional sport event in place of Singapore.
The SEA Games takes place every two years, with 11 countries in Southeast Asia participating. Each member country, in alphabetical order, takes turn hosting this event. Let’s look at the number of sports and gold medals in The SEA Ganes in recent years. The 21st SEA Games, hosted by Malaysia in 2001, had 32 sports with 391 gold medals. There were 32 sports with 439 gold medals in The 22nd SEA Games, held in Vietnam in 2003. The 23rd SEA Games, in The Philippines in 2005, had 40 sports with 439 gold medals.
The 24th SEA Games in Thailand this year, featuring 43 sports and 485 gold medals, had the highest number of sports and gold medals in The Asian Games and The Olympic Games. So The SEA Games is regarded as the largest regional sporting event in the world in terms of number of sports and madals.
Question 41. How long did The 24th SEA Games last?
	A. A week	B. 8 days.	C. 2 weeks	D. 10 days.
Question 42. Which of the following is not stated in the passage?
 A. The 24th SEA Games was the largest regional sporting event in the world.
 B. The 24th SEA Games was the highest number of sports and gold meadals in the history of the SEA Games.
	C. The 22nd SEA Games was held in Vietnam in 2003.
	D. The 2007 SEA Games was to be hosted by East Timor.
Question 43. How many sports were there in The 24th SEA Games?
	A. 44	B. 485	C. 43	D. 42
Question 44. How offen does the SEA Games take place? Every ___________.
	A. 2 years	B. 4 years	C. 3 years	D. 5 years
Question 45. Where was The 21st SEA Games celebrated?
	A. in Philippines	B. in Vietnam	C. in Malaysia	D. in Singapore
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50.
Basketball
	Although he created the game of basketball at the YMCA in Springfield, Massachusetts, Dr. James A. Naismith was a Canadian. Working as a physical education instructor at the International YMCA, now Springfield college, Dr. Naismith noticed a lack of interest in exercise among students during the wintertime. The New England winters were fierce and the students balked at participating in outdoor activities, Naismith determined that a fast-moving game that could be played ndoors would fill a void after a baseball and football seasons had ended.
	First he attempted to adapt outdoor games such as soccer and rugby to indoor play, but he soon found them unsuitable for confined areas. Finally he determined that he would have to invent a game.
	In December 1891, Dr. Naismith hung two old peach baskets at either end of the gymnasium at the school, and, using the soccer ball and nine players on each side( then seven players, now five), organized the first basketball game. The early rules allowed three points for each basket and made running with the ball a violation. Every time a goal was made, someone had to climb a ladder to retrieve the ball. 
Question 46. What does this passage mainly discuss ?
	A. The Olympic Games	B. The development of basketball
	C. The YMCA athletic progamme 	D. Dr. James Naismith
Question 47. The word “ them” in paragraph 2 refers to
	A. indoors 	B. seasons	C. games	D. areas
Question 48. Why did Naismith decide to invent basketball? 
	A. He didn’t like soccer or rugby.	
	B. He was tired of baseball and football
	C. He wanted his students to exercise during the winter.
	D. He could not convince his students to play indoors.
Question 49. The author mentions all of the following as typical of the early game of basketball EXCEPT
	A. Three points were scored for every basket.
	B. Running with the ball was not a foul.
	C. Nine players were on a team.
	D. The ball had to be retrieved from the basket after each score.
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that the original baskets
	A. were not placed very high.	B. had a metal rim
	C. did not have a hole in the bottom	D. were hung on the same side
___________The end__________
Đáp án
Câu
Đáp án
Câu
Đáp án
1
D
26
C
2
D
27
C
3
B
28
A
4
A
29
B
5
D
30
B
6
C
31
C
7
B
32
C
8
C
33
D
9
C
34
A
10
A
35
B
11
D
36
D
12
B
37
A
13
A
38
B
14
A
39
A
15
C
40
C
16
D
41
D
17
D
42
D
18
A
43
C
19
D
44
A
20
C
45
C
21
A
46
B
22
D
47
C
23
B
48
C
24
B
49
B
25
B
50
C