Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia lần 1 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2017 - Trường THPT chuyên Hồng Hà

SỞ GD & ĐT HÀ NỘI
 THPT CHUYÊN HỒNG HÀ
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 4 trang)
ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 1 THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark  the  letter A, B, C, or D  on  your  answer  sheet  to indicate  the word  whose underlined  part differs   from  the other  three  in  pronunciation  in  each  of  the  following  questions.
Question 1: 	A. laughed 	B. sacrificed     	C. cooked	D. explained
Question 2: 	A. airports   	B. ways    	C. questions  	D.   pictures
Mark  the  letter A, B, C, or D  on  your  answer  sheet  to  indicate  the  word  that  differs  from the other three  in the position of  primary  stress  in  each  of   the  following  questions.
Question 3: 	A. verbal   	B. signal     	C. common   	D. attract
Question 4: 	A. historian    	B. certificate     	C. academic	D. curriculum
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of  the following questions.
Question 5: Because  the  highway  system  was  built  40  years  ago , most  of  the roads  now  need  to  
 A 	 B 	C 	
repair.
 D
Question 6: Pointing  in  someone  is  usually  considered  impolite  but  it  is  acceptable when  a 
 A 	 B 	 C
teacher  wants  to  get  someone’s  attention  in  class.
 D
Question 7: If  a student  takes a course  on Computer Science, it will  take  him four years doing the 
 A 	 B 	 C 	 D
course.
Mark  the  letter A, B, C, or D on  your answer  sheet  to  indicate  the  correct  answer  to  each  of the following questions.  
Question 8: Many applicants find a job interview__________if they are not well-prepared for it.
 A. impressive   	B.  stressful  	C. threatening    	D. time-consuming
Question 9: He managed to win the race__________hurting his foot before the race.
 A. in  spite  of    	B. despite  of         	C. although 	D. because  of 
Question 10: Hardly__________when the argument began.
 A. when he arrived   	B. he had arrived
 C. than he arrived	D. had he arrived    
Question 11: Housework is less tiring and boring thanks to the invention of__________devices.
 A. environment-friendly       	B. time-consuming
 C.  labor-saving       	D. pollution-free
Question 12: By the end of the 21st century, scientists__________a cure for the common cold.
 A. will find         	B. will have found     	C. will be finding        D. will have been finding
Question 13: Last  Sunday  was __________that  we  took  a  drive  in  the  country.
 A. so beautiful  day           	B. such a beautiful  day 
 C. so a beautiful  day    	D. such beautiful day
Question 14: Widespread forest destruction__________in this particular area.
 A. must have seen 	B. ought to see 	C. could have seen	D. can be seen
Question 15: The greater the demand, __________the price. 
 A. the highest  	B. the high  	C. higher   	D. the higher
Question 16: After twenty years collecting stamps, Mike__________interested in them. 
 A. is not longer 	B. no longer    	C. no longer is	D. is no longer
Question 17: He asked me __________.
 A. since when I’m waiting    	B. how long I have been waiting      
 C. how long I had been waiting	D. since when I waited
Question 18: __________ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.
 A. Had you arrived  	B. If you arrived
 C. Were you arrived	D. If you hadn’t arrived 
Question 19: He still hasn’t really__________the death of his mother.
 A. recovered     	B. got over 	C. cured   	D. treated
Mark  the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: -   Charles  :    “ Do you fancy going to a movie this evening ? ”                           
-   Lisa:          “ ____________”        
 A. I’m sorry. I don’t know that.    	B. Not at all. Go ahead.
 C. Not so bad. And you ?    	D. That would be nice.
Question 21: -    John     :   “ What kind of job would you like ?                        
-    Tim     :   “ __________ “
 A. All of them are        	B. I heard it was very good
 C.  Anything to do with computers	D. Anytime after next week
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: He sounded panic-stricken on the phone.
 A. terrified        	B. troubled	C. happy 	D. disappointed
Question 23: Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate.
 A. taking off    	B. setting up	C. growing well 	D. closing down
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do.
 A. interested   	B. dissatisfied 	C. excited    	D. shocked
Question 25: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly.
 A. gently  	B. cleverly    	C. reasonably  	D. brutally
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: It is possible that the fire in the ship was started by a bomb.  
 A. They say that a bomb started the fire in the ship. 
 B. The fire in the ship might have been started by a bomb.
 C. It shall be said the fire in the ship had been started by a bomb.
 D. The fire in the ship is known to have been started by a bomb.
Question 27: Neil always forgets his wife’s birthday.
 A. At no time Neil remembers his wife’s birthday. 
 B. Neil never remembers his wife’s birthday.
 C. Neil sometimes remembers his wife’s birthday.
 D. Neil remembers his wife’s birthday all the time.
Question 28: If you practise harder you will have better results.
 A. The harder you practise, the best results you will have. 
 B. The more hardly you practise, the better results you will have.
 C. The hardest you practise, the most results you will have.
 D. The harder you practise, the better results you will have.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: A waitress served us. She was very impolite and impatient.
 A. A waitress who served us , was very impolite and impatient. 
 B. A waitress which served us., was very impolite and impatient.
 C. A waitress who served us was very impolite and impatient.
 D. A waitress whom served us , was very impolite and impatient.
Question 30: She wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. She was injured.     
 A. If she hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured. 
 B. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured.
 C. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.
 D. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. 
Our classes take place for three hours every morning from Monday to Friday. The (31)_________ class size is twelve and the average is ten. We use modern methods (32)_________ teaching  and learning, and the school has a language laboratory, a video camera and recorders. You will only be successful in improving your English; however, if you work hard and practise speaking English as much as you can. You will take a short (33)_________ in English as soon as you arrive. In this way, we can put you in a (34)_________ at the most suitable level.
The emphasis is on oral communication practice in a wide (35)_________ of situations at the advanced knowledge. You will learn how to use language correctly and appropriately when you talk to native speakers. In addition, you will develop such study skills as reading efficiently, writing articles and reports, and note-taking from books and lectures.
Question 31: 	A. maximum  	B. minimum   	C. small     	D. large
Question 32: 	A. in    	B. of    	C. on      	D. for
Question 33: 	A. test  	B. exam    	C. course   	D. lesson
Question 34: 	A. form   	B. class	C. grade	D. course
Question 35: 	A. variety       	B. amount  	C. number     	D. lot
Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet ti indicate the correct answer to each of the questions 
  	Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion off 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not expanded even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two century, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English, speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking, and diplomacy.
  	Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two thirds of the world's science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airport, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than  700  million English users in the world, and over half of these are non-native speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users than any other language in the world.
Question 36: What is the main topic of the passage?  
 A. The number of non-native users of English. 
 B. The French influence on the English language.
 C. The expansion of English as an international language.
 D. The use of English for science and technology.
Question 37: In the first paragraph, the word "emerged" is closest in meaning to 
 A. appeared 	B. hailed   	C. frequented    	D. engaged
Question 38: In the first paragraph, the word "elements" is closest in meaning to   
 A. declaration     	B. features   	C. curiosities	D. customs
Question 39: Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England?____________ .  
 A. In 1066  	B. around 1350    	C. before 1600	D. after 1600
Question 40: According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world except ____________ .  
 A. the slave trade 	B. the Norman invasion
 C. missionaries   	D. colonization
Question 41: In the second paragraph, the word "stored" is closest in meaning to____________ .  
 A. bought    	B. saved  	C. spent 	D. valued
Question 42: According to the passage, approximately how many non-native users of English are there in the world today ? ____________ .  
 A. a quarter million 	B. half a million 
 C. 350 million	D. 700 million 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions 
      	 Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.
      	Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year she published The Sea Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface,  emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her nontechnical readers.
      	In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy.  It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was proved by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee.
                                                                                       (Source: TOEFL Reading)
Question 43: The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work ______________.
 A. as a researcher            	B. at college
 C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service  	D.  as a writer
Question 44: According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?
 A. oceanography  	B.  zoology 	C. literature 	D. history
Question 45: When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of
 A. 26        	B. 29     	C. 34 	D. 45
Question 46: It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind ______________.
 A. was outdated        	B. became  more  popular  than   her  other books
 C. was praised by critics   	D. sold many copies
Question 47: Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea Around Us?   
 A. printed matter   	B. talks with experts
 C. a research expedition 	D. letters from scientists
Question 48: The word “reckless” in line 11 is closest in meaning to ______________.
 A. unnecessary   	B. limited   	C. continuous  	D. irresponsible
Question 49: The word “flawed” in line 14 is closest in meaning to ______________.
 A. faulty       	B. deceptive   	C. logical   	D. offensive
Question 50: Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee (lines 14-15) ?     
 A. To provide an example of government propaganda. 
 B. To support Carson’s ideas.
 C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment.
 D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims.
ĐÁP ÁN
1.D
11.C
21.C
31.A
41.B
2.A
12.B
22.A
32.B
42.C
3.D
13.B
23.C
33.A
43.D
4.C
14.D
24.B
34.B
44.B
5.D
15.D
25.A
35.A
45.C
6.A
16.D
26.B
36.C
46.D
7.D
17.B
27.B
37.A
47.C
8.B
18.C
28.D
38.B
48.D
9.A
19.A
29.C
39.D
49.A
10.D
20.D
30.D
40.B
50.B
LỜI GIẢI CHI TIẾT
1 D
A./t/ B./t/ C./t/ D./d/
2 A
A./s/ B./z/ C./z/ D./z/
3 D
Phần D trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ 2, còn lại là thứ nhất
4 C
Phần C trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ 3, còn lại là thứ 2
5 D
“to repair” -> “to be repaired”
Chủ ngữ trong vế câu này là vật (roads) nên phải chia động từ ở dạng bị động (need to be done: cần 
được làm gì)
6 A
“Pointing in” -> “Pointing at”
Cụm “point (a finger) at someone”: chỉ tay vào ai 
7 D
“doing” -> “to do”
Cấu trúc “take sb + time+ to do st”: mất cho ai đó bao nhiêu thời gian để làm gì
8 B
“stressful”: căng thẳng, hỗn loạn
Nhiều ứng viên cảm thấy một cuộc phỏng vấn công việc rất căng thẳng nếu họ không chuẩn bị tốt cho 
nó.
9 A
Although + một mệnh đề -> đáp án C loại
“despite” + danh từ/cụm danh từ (không có of) -> câu B loại
Câu D không phù hợp về nghĩa
Đáp án là A: In spite of + danh từ/cụm danh từ
10 D
Cấu trúc đảo ngữ với Hardly: Hardly + had + S + động từ phân từ II + when + mệnh đề quá khứ đơn 
bình thường
11 C
“labor-saving” (tính từ ghép): tiết kiệm sức lao động
Việc nhà ít mệt mỏi và nhàm chán hơn nhờ vào việc phát minh ra các thiết bị tiết kiệm lao động.
12 B
Khi có trạng từ chỉ thời gian “By + một khoảng thời gian nào đó trong tương lai”, ta dùng thì tương lai 
hoàn thành: will/shall + have + động từ phân từ II
13 B
Câu A, D thiếu mạo từ “a” nên bị loại
Câu C bị sai trật tự, phải là “so beautiful a day” mới đúng
Đáp án là D
14 D
Ở đây, chủ ngữ là vật (Widespread forest destruction) cho nên động từ phải chia ở dạng bị động. A,B,C 
đều chia ở chủ động, cho nên bị loại. Ngoài ra nếu xét về nghĩa, câu D là có sự chuẩn xác nhất
15 D
Cấu trúc so sánh hơn “càngcàng”: the + adj-er (hoặc more + tính từ dài) +., the + adj –er (hoặc 
more + tính từ dài) +.
16 D
Trong câu nếu có to be và tính từ, thì vị trí của “no longer” là ở giữa to be và tính từ đó
17 B
Cụm “get over st”: vượt qua, khắc phục được cái gì
Anh vẫn chưa thực sự đã vượt qua được nỗi đau từ cái chết của mẹ mình.
18 C
Ở đây phải sử dụng thì hoàn thành để diễn tả sự kéo dài của hành động.
Câu B không chính xác bởi khi chuyển từ câu trực tiếp sang gián tiếp, thì hiện tại hoàn thành tiếp diễn 
được chuyển thành thì quá khứ hoàn thành tiếp diễn
19 A
Ở đây là câu điều kiện loại 3, thể hiện một hành động đã không xảy ra trong quá khứ
Had you arrived = If you had arrived
20 D
- Bạn có muốn đi xem phim tối nay không?
- Điều đó sẽ rất tuyệt.
21 C
- Bạn muốn làm kiểu công việc gì?
- Bất cứ thứ gì liên quan đến máy tính
22 A
“panic-stricken” = terrified : đáng sợ, khiếp sợ
23 C
“flourishing” = “growing well”: phát triển tốt, hưng thịnh, phát đạt
24 B
“to be contented with st”: vừa lòng với cái gì
Trái nghĩa là “dissatisfied”: không vừa ý, không vừa lòng
25 A
“cruelly”: một cách độc ác, tàn nhẫn
Trái nghĩa là “gently”: một cách nhẹ nhàng, một cách dịu dàng
26 B
“might” + have done: phỏng đoán về một việc có thể đã xảy ra trong quá khứ
27 B
Neil luôn luôn quên sinh nhật vợ mình = Neil không bao giờ nhớ sinh nhật vợ mình
28 D
Cấu trúc so sánh hơn “càngcàng”: the + adj-er (hoặc more + tính từ dài) +., the + adj –er (hoặc 
more + tính từ dài) +.
29 C
“who” là mệnh đề quan hệ, thay thế cho danh từ A waitress
Câu A không đúng vì thiếu mất 1 dấu “,”. Câu A nên sửa thành “A waitress, who served us , was very 
impolite and impatient.”
30 D
Đây là câu điều kiện loại 3, thể hiện một hành động đã không xảy ra trong quá khứ.
“Nếu cô ấy đeo dây an toàn, thì đã không xảy ra tai nạn rồi”
31 A
“The maximum”: tối đa 
Số lượng tối đa trong lớp là 12 và trung bình là 10
32 B
“methods of”: cách thức  gì đó
We use modern methods of teaching and learning: Chúng tôi sử dụng cách dạy và học hiện đại
33 A
“test”: bài kiểm tra
Ở đây không dùng “exam” (: kỳ thi) vì phạm vi exam rộng hơn test rất nhiều
34 B
In this way, we can put you in a class at the most suitable level: Bằng cách này, chúng tôi có thể xếp 
bạn vào lớp có mức độ phù hợp nhất
35 A
The emphasis is on oral communication practice in a wide variety of situations at the advanced 
knowledge: Trọng tâm là thực hành giao tiếp trong một loạt các tình huống ở những kiến thức tiên tiến.
36 C
Tiêu đề phù hợp nhất của bài viết là The expansion of English as an international language. (Sự phát 
triển của Tiếng anh như một ngôn ngữ quốc tế)
Thông tin ở 2 câu đầu tiên của 2 đoạn:
- Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant 
language of international communication.
- Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English.
37 A
“emerge” = “appear”: xuất hiện, nổi lên
38 B
“elements” = “features”: những yếu tố, những nguyên tố, những đặc trưng
39 D
Thông tin ở câu thứ 3 đoạn đầu tiên: Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in 
England (Cho đến những năm 1600, Tiếng anh, ở hầu hết khu vực, được sử dụng duy nhất ở Anh)
40 B
A, C, D đều được nhắc đến trong câu: However, during the course of the next two century, English 
began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, 
and missionary work.
Chỉ có duy nhất B không được đề cập đến
41 B
“stored” = saved: được lưu, được lưu trữ
42 C
Thông tin ở câu cuối của đoạn 2: Today there are more than 700 million English users in