Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi lớp 9 năm học 2015 - 2016 môn thi: Tiếng Anh trường THCS Dân Hòa

PHÒNG GD&ĐT THANH OAI
TRƯỜNG THCS DÂN HÒA
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 
NĂM HỌC 2015- 2016
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút( không kể thời gian giao đề)
PART ONE: LISTENING: 
L isten and fill in the blank with ONE word (0.2 x 15 = 3.0 pts) 
 Going camping 
 The Bright family went camping on the (1) . The Bright family (2). to Silent Lake. The Bright family (3). on the Friday. They camped for (4) . days. The Bright family bought a (5) tent. They bought a lot of (6. They bought insect repellant. The Bright family had a campfire on(7) . They roasted marshmallows. They sang (8) . songs. On Saturday they went (9) . On Saturday they went fishing. On Saturday they went (10) . They went (11) . on Sunday. The Bright family saw many (12) . They saw blue jays. They saw hummingbirds. The Bright family saw many (13) . They saw a raccoon. They saw a squirrel. But they didn’t see a (14) . The Bright family had a (15) . vacation.
PART TWO: PHONETICS (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts)
Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)
1.
A. method
B. father
C. feather
D. weather
2.
A. chemistry
B. children
C. schooling 
D. character
3.
A. state
B. status
C. station
D. statue
4.
A. bury
B. heavy
C. carry
D. many
5.
A. sound	
B. southern	
C. drought
D. mountain
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)
1.
A. appliance
B. activity
C. adventure
D. average
2.
A. favorite
B. government
C. identify 
D. influence
3.
A. economic
B. volcanic
C.disappointed
D. scientific
4.
A. reputation
B. description
C. suggestion
D. pollution
5.
A. magazine
B. pictures
C. documentary
D. entertain
PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (6.5 pts)
Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (0.1 x 15 = 1,5 pts)
1. When the party was _____ we helped them clear up the house.
A. up	B. off	C. out 	D. over 
2 . Jack can’t remember _____ the telephone number down. 
A. write 	B to write 	C. writing 	D. written 
3.The Boing 747 is twice the Boing 707.
 A. bigger than	B. as big as	C. as bigger as	D. much big as
4. Jane stopped the car _____ a newspaper. 
A. buying 	B. to buy 	C. buy 	D. bought 
5. I _____ your name. Could you tell me again? 
A. am forgetting	B. have been forgetting C. have forgotten 	D. was forgetting 
6. There you are! I _____ for two hours. Where’ve you been? 
A. am waiting 	B. wait 	C. waited 	 D. have been waiting 
7. This job ______ working very long hours.
	A. involves	B. consists	C. includes	D. contains
8. “Have they arrested the thieves yet?” “It’s only a _______ of time.”
	A. period	B. matter	C. length	D. waste
9. Just think, ______ two years’ time, we’ll be 18!
	A. under	B. over	C. after	D. in
10. I’ll give you ten minutes to come ______ with a better idea.
	A. out	B. in	C. through	D. up 
11. Nobody was injured in the accident,..........?
A. was there B. was he C. were they D. wasn’t it
12. There was hardly .............money left in my bank account.
A. more B. no C. some D. any
13. I came ...........an old friend while I was walking along the street.
A. across B. into C. over D. for
14. If you ............to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess now.
A. listen B. will listen C. listened D. had listened
15. There isn’t .................foreign news in the paper.
A. a lot B. lots C. many D. much 
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
 6. 
 7.
 8.
9.
10. 
Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt)
1. He sent a copy of his will to his bank _______ safe keeping. 
2. Although I practise quite a lot, I never seem to win very often _______ tennis.
3. Nam's brothers are very fond _______ team sports.
4. Most people think the government is to blame _______ rising unemployment.
5. There has been a sharp increase _______ house prices in recent months.
6. You remind me _______my sister.
7. Could you come back in half an hour? Mr. Baston’s _______ lunch at the moment.
8. I know _______ experience that I do my best work early in the morning.
9. She intended to post my letter, but she forgot all _______ it.
10. I’m sure you will succeed _______ this entrance test.
Your answers:
.
2. 
3.
4.
5
7
8
9
10. 
Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts)
Humphry Davy helped Faraday much in his later...................... (DISCOVER)
The farmer is trying to.... the pig before killing it for meat. (FAT).
This organization is very concerned about the. of the rain forests.(DESTROY).
I was annoyed at his.to cooperate. (REFUSE).
Two. from the group " Friends of the Earth" are talking to the students.
 (REPRESENT)
This knife is  It can't cut anything. (USE)
 This photo has just been  (LARGE)
She has been .since her husband died. (POVERTY)
Most orphans are bred in .. (ORPHAN) 
 covers the sky at night. (DARK)
Your answers:
1. 
2. 
3.
4
5
7
8
9
10. 
Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the phrasal verbs given in the box. (0. 2 x 10 = 2.0 pts)
1. His hair is short. He( have)___________ a haircut.
2. He said that he( see)___________ that man before.
3. If today( be)___________ Sunday, we would go picnic.
4. This house didn’t use to( paint)___________ green.
5. She wishes she( not punish)___________ tomorrow.
6. My father told me( not stay)___________ up too late.
7. When I met him at the bookstore, he( talk)___________ to his friends 
8. He ate as if he ( not, eat) ___________ anything for a long time.
9. He intends( help)__________________ his mother to clean the house tomorrow.
10. I remembered( lock)_____________ the door last night before I went to bed
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
 6. 
 7.
 8.
9.
10. 
PART FOUR: READING (4.0 pts)
Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt)
It’s always worth preparing well for an interview. Don’t just hope (1)  the best. Here are a (2)  tips. Practise how you say things, as well as what you (3)  to say. If you don’t own a video camera, perhaps a friend of (4)  does. Borrow it and make a video tape of yourself. Find (5)  to watch it with you and give you a (6)  of advice on how you appear and behave. Before the interview, plan what to wear. Find out how the company expects its (7)  to dress. At the interview, believe (8)  yourself and be honest, open and friendly. (9)  attention and keep your answers to the point. The interviewer doesn’t want to waste time and (10)  do you. 
1. A 
against 
B. 
for 
 C 
to 
 D 
at 
2. A 
little 
B. 
several 
 C 
few 
 D 
lot 
3. A 
intend 
B. 
consider 
 C 
imagine 
 D 
think 
4. A 
his 
 B 
yours 
 C 
mine 
 D 
ours 
5. A 
anybody 
 B 
nobody 
 C 
everybody 
 D 
somebody 
6. A 
number 
 B 
slice 
 C 
plenty 
 D 
bit 
7. A 
colleagues 
 B 
employees 
 C 
customers 
 D 
employers 
8. A 
in 
 B 
of 
 C 
with 
 D 
by 
9. A 
Attract 
 B 
Give 
 C 
Turn 
 D 
Pay 
10. A
so
 B
either
 C
neither
 D
or
Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (0,2 x10 = 2.0pts)
 Miss Darby was one of those people who never threw anything away. “You never know when you might need it” was (1) ...................................... of her favorite sayings. She lived (2) ...................................... herself in a large Victorian house across the road from us. Although I never went to her house, I knew it was full (3) ...................................... antique furniture, Persian carpets and so on. In every room, there were dozens of paintings so that her house was (4) ...................................... an art gallery. I remember my father (5) ...................................... that she was a “ Staffordshire Darby” but I had (6) ...................................... idea what he meant. I (7) ...................................... out years later that the Darby family had made their money from coal-mining in Staffordshire. We used to make up stories (8) ...................................... her. My sister Alice, (9) ...................................... was a romantic girl, told us that Miss Darby once had a lover, but he walked out one day and she (10) ...................................... saw him again!
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
 6. 
 7.
 8.
9.
10. 
Circle best option A, B, C or D to answer following questions ( 1.0pt)
 When I injured my back I had to take a break from my running career. I decided to introduce more women to the sport, to show them how much fun it can be and to give them the confidence to get out and run. I decided to start a running club for women in my area because I was annoyed by the attitude of many race organizers. They complain about the lack of women in the sport but also use this as an excuse for not providing separate changing facilities.
	I put up posters and 40 women, young and old, fit and unfit, joined. All of them were attracted by the idea of losing weight but I don’t think they had really thought about running before. When or if they did, they had a picture of painful training. They didn’t think of chatting and smiling while running in beautiful places, like by a river.
	At first they ran for only a minute - now they can run for thirty minutes. They’ve also learned from other runners about diet and keeping fit in general. I want to do something for women’s running and I have had so much pleasure watching their progress – almost as much as they’ve had themselves.
What is the writer’s main aim in writing the text?
A. to describe her own running career	B. to complain about race organizers
C. to talk about women runners	D. to describe good running method
What would a reader find out from the text?
the best kind of places for running
how runners can avoid injuring themselves
the teaching skills of the writer
the progress made by the women in the club
What is the writer’s opinion of the runners she trained?
A. They were too serious	B. They needed encouraging
C. They couldn’t develop their skills	D. They were difficult to train
Why did the women join the running club?
A. to have a good time	B. to meet other people
C. to help them lose weight	D. to become top runners
Which of the following would be the best title for the club poster?
A. Discover the Pleasures of Running 	B. Riverside Running Club for Women
 C. Athletics Competition: How to Win	D. Keep Fit by Training Hard
PART FIVE: WRITING (4.5)	
Finish the second sentence in such a way that is similar to the original one. (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt)
1. I could realize how important the family is only after I left home.
Not until ....................................................................................
2. Mrs. Green is proud of her son’s contribution to the play.
Mrs. Green is proud of what ........................................................
3. It was such good milk that we couldn’t stop drinking it 
The milk 	
4. If possible, you should keep the car in a garage at night. 
 If possible, your...
5. He got down to writing the letter as soon as he returned from his walk.
No sooner..
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words in any way.
 (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt)
1. I met her during my stay in London last summer. (staying)
 I met... 
2. We had a choice of three main courses for dinner. (choose)
 We could ...
3. Three hundred students entered the swimming competition last year. (part)
 Three hundred students ...... 
4. My sister doesn’t like computer games very much. (keen) 
 My sistergames.
5. Could you speak English when you were younger? (able)
 When you were ....
III. In about 200 words, write a short passage of argument to persuade your friends to go to school by bicycle.( while some students like going to school by motor- cycle)( 2.5pts) 
.
ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM ĐỀ THI HSG vòng 2
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 9
NĂM HỌC: 2014 – 2015.
PART ONE: LISTENING 
 L isten and fill in the blank with ONE word (0.2 x 15 = 3.0 pts) 
 Going camping 
 The Bright family went camping on the(1) weekend. The Bright family (2)went to Silent Lake. The Bright family( 3)left on the Friday. They camped for( 4) three days. The Bright family bought a (5)big tent.They bought a lot of( 6)food. They bought insect repellant. The Bright family had a campfire on( 7)Friday. They roasted marshmallows. They sang ( 8)campfire songs. On Saturday they went( 9) canoeing. On Saturday they went fishing. On Saturday they went( 10) swimming. They went( 11)hiking on Sunday. The Bright family saw many( 12)birds. They saw blue jays. They saw hummingbirds. The Bright family saw many( 13)animals. They saw a raccoon. They saw a squirrel. But they didn’t see a( 14)bear. The Bright family had a( 15)fun vacation.
PART TWO: PHONETICS (2.0 pts)
Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)
1. A. method
2. B. children
3. D. statue
4. C. carry
5. B. southern	
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)
1. D. average
2. C. identify
3. B. volcanic
4. A. reputation
5. B. pictures	
PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (6.5 pts)
Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (0.1 x 15 = 1,5 pts) 
1. D. over 
2. C. writing
3. B. as big as
4. B. to buy 	
5. C. have forgotten
6. D. have been waiting 
7. A. involves
8.D. waste
9. D. in. 
10. D. up 
11. C. were they 
 12. D. any 
13. A. across 
14.C. listened 
15. D. much 
Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (0.1x 10= 1.0 pt)
1. for	2. at	3. of	4. for 	5. in
6. about	7. at 	8. from	9. about	10. in	
Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) 
1. discovery/discoveries
6. useless
2. fatten
7. enlarged
3. destruction
8. poor
4. refusal
9 .orphanages
5. representatives
10. Darkness (bắt buộc viết hoa đầu từ)
Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the phrasal verbs given in the box. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts)
1. has had	 2. had seen	 3. were	 4. be painted	 5. wouldn’t be punished
6. not to stay	 7. was talking	8. hadn’t eaten	 9. to help	10. locking
PART FOUR: READING (4.0 pts)
I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt) 
Questions 
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
5. 
6
7
8
9
10
Key
B
C
A
B
D
A
B
A
D
C
II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (2.0pts)
1. one 	 2. by 	 3. of 	4. like 	 5. saying 
6. no 7. found 8. about	 9. who 	10. Never
III. Circle best option A, B, C or D to answer following questions ( 1.0pt)
1. C
2. D
3. B
4. C
5. A
PART FIVE: WRITING (4.5 pts)
Finish the second sentence in such a way that is similar to the original one. (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt)
1. Not until I left home could I realize how important the family is.
2. Mrs. Green is proud of what her son can contribute / contributes to the play.
3. The milk was so good that we couldn’t stop drinking it.
4. If possible, your car should be kept in the garage at night.
5..No sooner had he returned from his walk than he got down to writing the letter
 II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words in any way. (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt)
1. I met her while I was staying in London last summer.
2. We could choose from three main courses for dinner.
3. Three hundred students took part in the swimming competition last year.
4. My sister isn't very keen on computer games.
5. When you were younger, were you able to speak English?
III. In about 200 words, write a short passage of argument to persuade your friends to go to school by bicycle. ( while some students like going to school by motor-cycle)
. (2.5pts) 
Ý tưởng : 1.0 điểm : Nêu lên được những ưu điểm của việc đi học bằng xe đạp như : phương tiện rèn luyện sức khỏe tốt, ít tốn kém , không ô nhiểm môi trường, an toàn giao thông ( học sinh không được phép đi xe gắn máy), có thể ngắm cảnh hoặc trò chuyện với bạn trong khi đang đi..
Kỹ thuật : 1.0 điểm : Viết được đoạn văn dài khoảng 100 – 120 từ, có bố cục rõ ràng, trình bày các ưu điểm dưới dạng nghị luận : Firstly, Next, Besides, Finally.
Câu văn viết đúng ngữ pháp, dùng từ chính xác, phong phú.
 Tùy mức độ học sinh viết được, giám khảo dựa vào thang điểm để quyết định.
Chú ý : Yêu cầu tất cả các câu phải viết đúng ngữ pháp từ vựng mới cho điểm tối đa.	 
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