Tài liệu Bồi dưỡng chuyên môn cấp THCS môn Tiếng Anh - Phần 5 - Năm học 2017-2018 - Sở GD & ĐT Khánh Hòa

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PHỤ LỤC 2: 
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THCS CẤP TỈNH 
 KHÁNH HÒA NĂM HỌC 2016-2017 
   
 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH – Lớp 8 
 Ngày thi: 11/4/2017 
 (Thời gian: 150 phút – không kể thời gian phát đề) 
  
Nhắc nhở thí sinh: 
 Điền đầy đủ thông tin của cá nhân; 
 Bài làm có 10 trang, thí sinh kiểm tra số trang, chất lượng bản in trước khi làm bài; 
 Bài NGHE gồm 03 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 02 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây; 
 Bài làm bằng bút mực hoặc bút bi, không làm bằng bút chì kể cả phần trắc nghiệm; 
 Thí sinh làm bài ngay trên tập Đề thi này (viết câu trả lời vào phần Your answers được cung 
cấp hoặc vào các phần trống ở các câu hỏi (ở các phần không có Your answers); 
 Không sử dụng bất kỳ tài liệu nào trong quá trình làm bài. 
 .................................................................................................................................................... 
Họ và tên thí sinh: .............................................................................................................................. 
Ngày, tháng, năm sinh: ................... / .................. / ................................... 
Nơi sinh: ..................................................................................................................................................... 
SBD: ............................................ 
Phòng thi:................................ 
Cán bộ coi thi 1: .................................................................................................................................. 
(Ký và ghi rõ họ tên) 
SỐ PHÁCH 
Cán bộ coi thi 2: .................................................................................................................................. 
(Ký và ghi rõ họ tên) 
* Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm. 
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC 
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Điểm bài thi đã quy đổi Họ, tên và chữ ký giám khảo 
Bằng số Bằng chữ 
GK1:  
GK2:  
SỐ PHÁCH 
I. LISTENING (40 points) 
PART 1: You are going to hear a man who is interested in protecting the environment talking to a 
travel agent about eco-holidays. 
(Questions 1-8) Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS or A NUMBER for 
each answer. (16 points) 
ECO-HOLIDAYS 
Customer‟s name: IGOR PETROV 
Length of holiday: (1)_____ 
Will pay up to £ (2)_____ 
Told him about (3)_____ for advance payments 
Requires (4)_____ on plane 
Must check if he needs a (5)_____ 
Type of holiday Accommodation Advantage 
Dumbarton Tablelands watching animals house in a (6)_____ close to nature 
Bago Nature Reserve live with a (7)_____ village house learn about way of life 
San Luis Island working in a family hostel 
holiday location 
without (8)_____ 
Your answers: 
1. ................................ 2. ................................ 3. ................................ 4. ................................ 
5. ................................ 6. ................................ 7. ................................ 8. ................................ 
PART 2: You will hear someone giving her opinion about whether it is possible to judge people by 
their appearance. 
(Questions 9-14) Decide whether the following statements are (T) True or (F) False. (12 points) 
9. The pilot met the speaker‟s friend as she arrived at the airport. 
10. The speaker thinks it is human nature to judge people by their appearance. 
11. The speaker thinks we are usually more interested in people who look like our friends. 
12. The speaker disliked one of her teachers because of her hairstyle. 
13. The speaker thinks people‟s faces and clothes are a reliable guide to their character. 
14. The speaker thinks that women can change the way they look more easily than men. 
Your answers: 
9.  10.  11.  12.  13.  14.  
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PART 3: As you are leaving an aeroplane at the end of a flight, you overhear this conversation 
between a passenger and a flight attendant. 
(Questions 15-20) Choose the best answer (A, B or C). (12 points) 
15. What is the passenger doing in Athens? 
 A. spending a holiday there B. trying to get a job C. buying a house 
16. How many more hours will the flight attendant be working today? 
 A. five B. at least five and a half C. twelve 
17. What is TRUE about the trips from Athens to London and from London to Athens? 
 A. same distance, different journey time 
 B. different distance, same journey time 
 C. same distance and same journey time 
18. How does the flight attendant feel about longer flights? 
 A. She finds them difficult. 
 B. She doesn‟t give an opinion. 
 C. She prefers them. 
19. How often does the flight attendant get to stay somewhere for two nights? 
 A. almost every week B. once a month C. very rarely 
20. What is the flight attendant‟s attitude towards going to Moscow? 
 A. She finds the living conditions difficult. 
 B. She is curious to find out what it is like. 
 C. She is looking forward to going. 
Your answers: 
15.  16.  17.  18.  19.  20.  
II. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES (50 points) 
(Questions 21-23) Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others 
in each group. (3 points) 
21. A. edition B. diameter C. editor D. event 
22. A. begged B. booked C. canned D. buttoned 
23. A. obsession B. depression C. procession D. possession 
Your answers: 
21.  22.  23.  
(Questions 24-25) Choose the word whose main stress is placed differently from the others in each 
group. (2 points) 
24. A. poverty B. decision C. pottery D. astronaut 
25. A. experiment B. independence C. individual D. reputation 
Your answers: 
24.  25.  
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(Questions 26-40) Choose the answer (A, B, C, or D) which best completes each sentence. (15 points) 
26. _____ the library was about to close, I found a useful book for my essay, so I rushed to the counter 
immediately. 
A. Before B. By the time C. Ever since D. Just as 
27. Andrew _____ greater responsibilities when he was promoted. 
A. went over B. put up C. took on D. got over 
28. That book is written by a famous anthropologist. It‟s about the people in Samoa _____ for two 
years. 
A. that she lived B. that she lived among them 
C. among whom she lived D. where she lived among them. 
29. “Do you mind my taking this seat?” – “_____” 
A. Yes, take it please. B. No, of course not. 
C. Yes, sit down please. D. No, you can‟t take it. 
30. He looked very _____ when he got out of the house. He may have got some _____ experience. 
A. frightening / frightening B. frightened / frightened 
C. frightening / frightened D. frightened / frightening 
31. Initially I was opposed to the idea, but after I had seen the research, I _____ that the project was a 
good one. 
A. must have agreed B. would have agreed 
C. ought to agree D. had to agree 
32. Dean is always _____ his new things as if he is better than me, but all it means is that his family is 
richer than mine. 
A. owning up B. keeping at C. calling on D. showing off 
33. He went to Australia hoping to find a teaching _____ without too much difficulty. 
A. work B. occupation C. employment D. post 
34. Learners of English as a foreign language often fail to ____ between unfamiliar sounds in that 
language. 
A. separate B. differ C. distinguish D. solve 
35. Mary is very _____ to criticism so be careful what you say. 
A. sensitive B. sensible C. sensational D. emotional 
36. She wondered _____ her father looked like now, after so many years away. 
A. how B. which C. that D. what 
37. The _____ of this new drug is not known yet, as it‟s still in the trial process. 
A. result B. consequence C. effect D. affect 
38. The situation was a little embarrassing when Alice served roast beef for dinner. I wish I _____ her 
that Greg was a vegetarian. 
A. would tell B. had told C. better told D. told 
39. Tom: “Which is more important? Luck or effort?” – Mary: “Luck is _____ effort.” 
A. on the same importance as B. of the same importance as 
C. the same importance as D. as the same importance as 
40. You‟d better save some money for a rainy day. You can‟t count on _____ by your parents every 
time you get into financial difficulty. 
A. rescuing B. being rescued C. to rescue D. to be rescued 
Your answers: 
26.  27.  28.  29.  30.  
31.  32.  33.  34.  35.  
36.  37.  38.  39.  40.  
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(Questions 41-54) Read the text below and look carefully at each line. If a line is correct, put a tick 
(√). If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word. There are two examples, (0) and 
(00). (14 points) 
HEALTH AND FITNESS 
0. It is important in today‟s society to keep as fit and healthy √ 
00. as possible. People who do work in offices have to be do 
41. especially sure that they take over some forms of exercise 
42. at least twice a week if they want to live for a long and 
43. happy life. But what is it the best way to keep fit? It really 
44. depends on your personality. If you are a competitive kind 
45. of person, then you would have probably like to play 
46. with some kind of sport. The kind of sport would, again, 
47. depend on you. A sociable type would prefer to team sports, 
48. whereas a „loner‟ would be attracted to individual sports like 
49. tennis, squash or badminton. For those who they do not want 
50. to compete, there are many of alternatives to sport. Walking, 
51. cycling and running are all the cheap and enjoyable forms of 
52. exercise. There are also many gymnasiums and health clubs to 
53. join up, which provide weight training facilities, and sometimes 
54. offer a personal training to suit your individual needs. 
(Questions 55-62) Use the word given in capitals at the end of each sentence to form a word that fits 
in the gap in the same sentence. (16 points) 
55. Although our teacher is very strict in class, she is _____ than you would expect. (FRIEND) 
56. He told her that he _____ with her problem but couldn‟t do anything to help. (SYMPATHY) 
57. He told her that he was _____ in love with her. (TRUE) 
58. In order for the medicine to work _____ you must take the correct amount. (EFFECT) 
59. It was really _____ of you to take that money without asking. (HONESTY) 
60. My belt feels a bit tight after that huge lunch. I think I‟ll have to _____ it a little. (LOOSE) 
61. The recipe says you only need to add two _____ of salt. (SPOON) 
62. When you take the FCE Speaking paper you will be given marks for your _____ and also on how 
fluent you are. (ACCURATE) 
Your answers: 
55.  59.  
56.  60.  
57.  61.  
58.  62.  
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III. READING (60 points) 
(Questions 63-72) Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete 
each of the numbered blanks. (10 points) 
NEW OPPORTUNITIES WITH AN OPEN UNIVERSITY DEGREE 
Like any other university, the Open University can give you a degree. However, you don‟t have to 
(63)_____ working to study. It can also open up a whole variety (64)_____ interests. If you have 
(65)_____ studied before, you will enjoy the special, new pleasure of (66)_____ your knowledge. You 
will make friends of (67)_____ kinds. You may also (68)_____ that your qualification provides new 
career opportunities. 
You don‟t actually (69)_____ to the Open University for lectures, but study at home, using television, 
radio and computer software. You can (70)_____ one class a month if you wish at an Open University 
centre. Of course, there are exams to take, as in (71)_____ university. If you (72)_____ like to know 
more, all you have to do is complete the form below. It could be the start of a wonderful new period in 
your life. 
63. A. stop B. end C. break D. leave 
64. A. from B. of C. in D. for 
65. A. ever B. never C. often D. always 
66. A. growing B. changing C. adding D. increasing 
67. A. all B. each C. both D. every 
68. A. suggest B. find C. wish D. want 
69. A. join B. enter C. arrive D. go 
70. A. give B. attend C. learn D. study 
71. A. any B. some C. many D. most 
72. A. did B. will C. would D. can 
Your answers: 
63.  64.  65.  66.  67.  
68.  69.  70.  71.  72.  
(Questions 73-82) Fill in each of the numbered blank spaces in the following passage with only 
ONE suitable word. (20 points) 
We were watching TV when we heard a lot of barking from our kitchen. We (73)_____ went to 
investigate and found our dog, Jasper, throwing a furry bundle round the room. The furry bundle 
turned (74)_____ to be Flopsie, the pet rabbit belonging to the children who lived next door. We had 
already (75)_____ in trouble with our neighbours, the Greenaways because of Jasper who had always 
managed to make a hole in the fence and dig up half of their garden. Jasper had obviously broken 
(76)_____ the rabbit‟s hutch and killed it. 
We knew that they were out for the day and that we (77)_____ to act quickly. I rushed upstairs with 
Flopsie and gave it a soapy bath and cleaned all the mud off its fur. My wife dried and brushed its coat 
so it looked as good as new. (78)_____ the coat was clear I climbed (79)_____ the fence and placed 
Flopsie lovingly in its hutch. 
Ten minutes (80)_____ we heard the Greenaways‟ car come in. All of a sudden, there was a loud 
scream from the next-door garden. Naturally we could not help it and went to the garden (81)_____ a 
look of concern on our faces. 
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Mrs. Greenaway stood white-faced by the fence with Flopsie in her arm. “What‟s the matter?” I asked, 
“Is (82)_____ wrong with Flopsie?” “Flopsie‟s dead,” she cried. 
Your answers: 
73.  74.  75.  76.  77.  
78.  79.  80.  81.  82.  
(Questions 83-87) Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to indicate 
the correct answer to each of the following questions. (10 points) 
Line 
(1) 
(5) 
(10) 
(15) 
The fact that most Americans live in urban areas does not mean that they reside in the center of 
large cities. In fact, more Americans live in the suburbs of large metropolitan areas than in the 
cities themselves. 
The Bureau of Census regards any area with more than 2,500 people as an urban area, and does 
not consider boundaries of cities and suburbs. According to the Bureau, the political boundaries 
are less significant than the social and economic relationships and the transportation and 
communication systems that integrate a local. The term used by the Bureau for an integrated 
metropolis is an MSA, which stands for Metropolitan Statistical Area. In general, an MSA is 
any area that contains a city and its surrounding suburbs and has a total population of 50,000 or 
more. 
At the present time, the Bureau reports more than 280 MSAs, which together account for 75 
percent of the U.S. population. In addition, the Bureau recognizes eighteen megapolises, that is, 
continuous adjacent metropolitan areas. One of the most obvious megapolises includes a chain 
of hundreds of cities and suburbs across ten states on the East Coast from Massachusetts to 
Virginia, including Boston, New York, and Washington D.C. In the Eastern Corridor, as it is 
called, a population of 45 million inhabitants is concentrated – Another megapolis that is 
growing rapidly is the California coast from San Francisco through Los Angeles to San Diego. 
83. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage? 
 A. Metropolitan Statistical Areas B. Type of Population Census 
 C. The Bureau of Census D. Megapolises 
84. Where do most Americans live? 
 A. In the center of cities. B. In the suburbs surrounding large cities 
 C. In rural areas D. In small towns 
85. Which of the following is not considered important to defining an urban area? 
 A. Political boundaries B. Transportation networks 
 C. Social relationships D. Economic systems 
86. According to the Bureau of Census. What is an MSA? 
 A. The center of a city with a population of 50,000 people to the boundaries of the surrounding suburbs. 
 B. A city and its suburbs with a total population of at least 50,000 people. 
 C. The surrounding suburbs of a city with a total population of 50,000 people. 
 D. Any area with a total population of 50,000 people. 
87. Where in the passage does the author suggest that three quarters of the U.S. population now 
resides in MSAs? 
 A. Lines 4-5 B. Lines 8-9 C. Lines 11-12 D. Lines 15-17 
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Your answers: 
83.  84.  85.  86.  87.  
(Questions 88-97) Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to indicate 
the correct answer to each of the following questions. (20 points) 
ETIQUETTE 
Every code of etiquette has contained three elements: basic moral duties; practical rules which promote 
efficiency; and artificial, optional graces such as formal compliments to women on their beauty or 
superiors on their generosity and importance. 
In the first category are consideration for the weak and respect for age. Among the ancient Egyptians 
the young always stood in the presence of older people. Among the Mponguwe of Tanzania, the young 
men bow as they pass the huts of the elders. In England, until about a century ago, young children did 
not sit in their parents‟ presence without asking permission. Practical rules are helpful in such ordinary 
occurrences of social life as making proper introductions at parties or other functions so that people 
can be brought to know each other. Before the invention of the fork, etiquette directed that the fingers 
should be kept as clean as possible; before the handkerchief came into common use, etiquette 
suggested that, after spitting, a person should rub the spit inconspicuously under foot. 
Extremely refined behaviour, however, cultivated as an art of gracious living, has been characteristic 
only of societies with wealth and leisure, which admitted women as the social equals of men. After 
the fall of Rome, the first European society to regulate behaviour in private life in accordance with a 
complicated code of etiquette was 12
th
-century Provence, in France. 
Provence had become wealthy. The lords had returned to their castles, and there the ideals of chivalry 
grew up, which emphasised the virtue and gentleness of women and demanded that a knight should 
profess a pure and dedicated love to a lady who would be his inspiration, and to whom he would 
dedicate his valiant deeds, though he would never come physically close to her. This was the 
introduction of the concept of romantic love, which was to influence literature for many hundreds of 
years. 
In Renaissance Italy too, in the 14
th
 and 15
th
 centuries, a wealthy and leisured society developed an 
extremely complex code of manners, but the rules of behaviour of fashionable society had little 
influence on the daily life of the lower classes. Indeed many of the rules, such as how to enter a 
banquet room, or how to use a sword or handkerchief for ceremonial purposes, were irrelevant to the 
way of life of the average working man, who spent most of his life outdoors or in his own poor hut and 
most probably did not have a handkerchief, certainly not a sword, to his name. 
Yet the essential basis of all good manners does not vary. Consideration for the old and weak and the 
avoidance of harming or giving unnecessary offence to others is a feature of all societies everywhere 
and at all levels from the highest to the lowest. 
88. Three elements contained in every code of etiquette are _____. 
A. practical rules, optional moral duties and formal compliments 
B. formal compliments, basic moral duties and practical rules 
C. optional moral duties, optional practical rules and artificial graces 
D. rules, regulations and requirements 
89. The custom of young men bowing to show respect when passing the dwellings of their elders was 
cited as a characteristic of _____. 
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 A. the ancien