Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia lần I môn Tiếng Anh năm 2017

 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2017 LẦN 1 
Môn: Tiếng Anh 
Thời gian: 90 phút 
Họ và tên:.. 
Lớp:... 
 SECTION A (8 points) 
 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from 
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
Question 1: A. check B. chemistry C. change D. cheap 
Question 2: A. given B. ridden C. widen D. kitchen 
 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in 
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 
Question 3: A. alternative B. appreciate C. aspiration D. biography 
Question 4: A. compulsory B. biography C. curriculum D. admirable 
Question 5: A. improve B. leisure C. guitar D. pursuit 
 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following 
questions. 
Question 6: Havy: “Thanks for your help, Judy.” Judy: “ .” 
A. With all my heart B. Never remind me C. It’s my pleasure D. Wish you 
Question 7: Tom painted his room black. It looks dark and dready. He _________have chosen another color. 
A. should B. could C. must D. might 
Question 8: The students to be at school at 3 p.m. 
A. told B. have told C. were told D. tell 
Question 9: Medical researchers are continually looking for ways to control,_ and cure diseases. 
A. prevented B. be prevented C. prevent D. preventing 
Question 10: "Just think, 2 years' time, we'll be 20 both." 
A. under B. in C. after D. over 
Question 11: The existence of many stars in the sky us to suspect that there may be life on another planet. 
A. have led B. leads C. lead D. leading 
Question 12: , we couldn’t go out because it rained. 
A. Unfortunately B. Fortunate C. Fortunately D. Unfortunate 
Question 13: The shirt in the window was expensive for me to buy. 
A. too B. such C. enough D. so 
Question 14: John never comes to class on time and . 
A. neither does Peter B. so does Peter C. so doesn't Peter D. neither doesn't Peter 
Question 15: Champagne, __________ in France, is exported all over the world. 
A. that is produced B. producing C. produced D. which produced 
Question 16: The population of the earth is increasing at a tremendous rate and out of control. 
A. are soon going to be B. soon will be C. they have become D. why it will be 
Question 17: I _________ for a computer company for a year. That was after college. 
A. has worked B. worked C. have worked D. have been working 
Question 18: When I last Jane, she to find a job. 
A. saw / was trying B. saw / tried C. have seen / tried D. see / is trying 
Question 19: he did not attend the English class, he knew the lesson quite well. 
A. In spite of B. However C. Although D. Despite 
Question 20: The air is not as pure as it . 
A. used to be B. is used to be C. is used to being D. was used to be 
Question 21: After a meal in a restaurant, you ask the waiter for the____ . 
A. receipt B. cheque C. prescription D. bill 
Question 22: This time tomorrow _______ on the beach sunbathing and drinking freshly squeezed fruit juice! 
 A. I'll lie B. I'll have lain C. I'll be lying D. I'll will have been lying 
Question 23: All the passengers were made ________ their seat belts during the turbulence. 
A. buckle B. to buckle C. buckling D. for buckling 
Question 24: She always encourages her son ____________ harder. 
A. to study B. studied C. study D. studying 
Question 25: The number of students who have withdrawn from class this quarter appalling. 
A. is B. are C. was D. were 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning 
to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 
Question 26: Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do. 
A. interested B. dissatisfied C. excited D. shocked 
Question 27: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly. 
A. gently B. cleverly C. reasonably D. brutally 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in 
each of the following questions. 
Question 28: The principles of physics described (A)by Christian Doppler in 1842 for the movement of stars 
has (B) been adapted (C) to evaluate the movement of blood (D) within the heart. 
Question 29: The mining (A) of minerals often bring about (B) the destruction (C) of landscapes a wildlife 
(D) habitats. 
Question 30: Georgia’s economy (A) is (B) based main (C) on (D) agriculture. 
Question 31: The languages of the world presents (A) a vast array (B) of structural similarities (C) and 
differences. (D) 
Question 32: Cro-Magnon man was names (A) after the caves (B) in southwest France where the first 
remains (C) were discovered (D). 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct 
answer to each of the questions from 33 to 42. 
A pilot cannot fly by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and landing in dense fog, a pilot must 
use radar, an alternative way of navigating. Since human eyes are not very good at determining speeds of 
approaching objects, radar can show a pilot how fast nearby planes are moving. The basic principle of radar is 
exemplified by what happens when one shouts in a cave. The echo of the sounds against the walls helps a person 
determine the size of the cave. With radar, however, the waves are radio waves instead of sound waves. Radio 
waves travel at the speed of light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. A radar set sends out a short burst of 
radio waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off objects. By determining the time it 
takes for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can determine the distance between the radar 
set and other objects. The word “radar”, in fact, gets its name from the term “radio detection and ranging”. 
“Ranging” is the term for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set. Besides being of critical 
importance to pilots, radar is essential for air traffic control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking weather systems 
and storms. 
Question 33: What is the main topic of this passage? 
A. The nature of radar. B. History of radar. C. Alternatives to radar. D. Types of ranging. 
Question 34: According to the passage, what can radar detect besides location of objects? 
A. Shape. B. Size. C. Speed. D. Weight. 
Question 35: The word “exemplified” in the passage can be replaced by . 
A. “specified” B. “resembled” C. “illustrated” D. “justified” 
Question 36: The word “shouts” in the passage most closely means . 
A. “exclaims” B. “yells” C. “shoots” D. “whispers” 
Question 37: Which of the following words best describes the tone of this passage? 
A. argumentative B. explanatory C. humorous D. imaginative 
Question 38: According to the passage, the distance between a radar set and an object can be determined by
 _. 
A. the time it takes for a burst of radio waves to produce echoes when the waves bounce off the object 
B. the term “ranging” used for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set 
C. the time it takes for the radio waves to produce echoes and bounce off the object 
D. the time it takes for the echoes produced by the radio waves to return to the radar set 
Question 39: Which type of waves does radar use? 
A. tidal B. sound C. heat D. radio 
Question 40: The word “tracking” in the passage most closely means . 
A. sending B. searching for C. ranging D. repairing 
Question 41: Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph? 
A. A history of flying. B. Other uses of radar. 
C. The technology used by pilots. D. Uses of some technology. 
Question 42: What might be inferred about radar? 
A. It takes the place of a radio. B. It has improved navigational safety. 
C. It was developed from a study of sound waves. D. It gave birth to the invention of the airplane. 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is closest in meaning 
to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 
Question 43: I couldn’t understand what the child said because the words were in the wrong sequence. 
A. spelling B. place C. order D. book 
Question 44: He sounded panic-stricken on the phone. 
A. terrified B. troubled C. happy D. disappointed 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct 
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 45 to 54. 
Many parents believe that their children (45) be taught to read right after they have learnt to walk. This is fine 
if the child shows a real interest but (46) a child could be counter-productive if she or he isn't ready. Wise 
parents will have a relaxed (47) and take the lead from their child. What they should provide is a selection of (48)
 toys, books and other activities. Nowadays there is plenty of good (49) available for young 
children, and of course, seeing plenty of books in use about the house will also (50)_ them to read. 
Of course, books are no longer the only (51) of stories and information. There is also a huge range of videos, 
which can (52) and extend the pleasure a child finds in a book and are (53) valuable in helping to 
increase vocabulary and concentration. Television gets a bad press as far as children are concerned, mainly because 
too many (54) too much time watching programmes not intended for their age group. 
Question 45: A. should B. could not C. had to D. must not 
Question 46: A. insisting B. making C. forcing D. starting 
Question 47: A. pastime B. decision C. attitude D. competition 
Question 48: A. bright B. expensive C. adult D. stimulating 
Question 49: A. games B. produce C. sense D. amusement 
Question 50: A. provide B. encourage C. provoke D. attract 
Question 51: A. search B. source C. site D. basis 
Question 52: A. enjoy B. watch C. reinforce D. assist 
Question 53: A. properly B. perfectly C. worthily D. equally 
Question 54: A. devote B. save C. pay D. spend 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct 
answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64. 
Of the six outer planets, Mars, commonly called the red planet, is the closest to Earth. Mars, 4,200 miles in diameter 
and 55 percent of the size of Earth, is 34,600,000 miles from Earth, and 141,000,000 miles from the Sun. It takes this 
planet, along with its two moons, Phobos and Deimos, 1.88 years to circle the Sun, compared to 365 days for the Earth. 
For many years, Mars had been thought of as the planet with the man-made canals, supposedly discovered by an 
Italian astronomer, Schiaparelli, in 1877. With the United States spacecraft Viking I’s landing on Mars in 1976, the man-
made canal theory was proven to be only a myth. 
Viking I, after landing on the soil of Mars, performed many scientific experiments and took numerous pictures. The 
pictures showed that the red color of the planet is due to the reddish, rocky Martian soil. No biological life was found, 
though it had been speculated by many scientists. The Viking also monitored many weather changes including violent 
dust storms. Some water vapor, polar ice, and permafrost (frost below the surface) were found, indicating that at one time 
there were significant quantities of water on this distant planet. Evidence collected by the spacecraft shows some present 
volcanic action, though the volcanoes are believed to be dormant, if not extinct. 
Question 55: All of the following are true EXCEPT __________. 
A. Mars is larger than Earth 
B. It takes longer for Mars to circle the Sun than it takes Earth 
C. Mars has two moons 
D. Martian soil is rocky 
Question 56: Man-made canals were supposedly discovered by __________. 
A. Schiaparelli B. Phobos C. Viking I D. Martian 
Question 57: The word “supposedly” in the passage is closest meaning to __________. 
A. actually B. unquestionably C. formerly D. presumably 
Question 58: Mars has been nicknamed __________. 
A. Martian B. Viking I C. Deimos D. the red planet 
Question 59: The Viking I exploration accomplished all of the following EXCEPT _________. 
A. discovering large quantities of polar ice and permafrost 
B. monitoring weather conditions 
C. collecting information showing volcanic action 
D. performing scientific experiments 
Question 60: The word “myth” in the passage is closest meaning to __________. 
A. fact B. event C. enigma D. legend 
Question 61: It can be inferred from the passage that the radius of Mars is __________. 
A. 141,000,000 miles B. 34,600,000 miles C. 4,200 miles D. 2,100 miles 
Question 62: What is the main idea of this passage? 
A. Scientists are no longer interested in the planet because there is no life on it. 
B. Fairly recent studies of this planet reveal data that contradict previously held theories. 
C. Very little of the Martian landscape has changed over the years. 
D. Scientists are only speculating about the red planet. 
Question 63: The word “monitored” is nearest in meaning to __________. 
A. censored B. programmed C. televised D. observed 
Question 64: Schiaparelli came from __________. 
A. Mars B. Italian C. Italy D. Martian 
SECTION B (2 points) 
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence 
printed before it. Write your answers in complete sentences on your answer sheet. 
Question 1: This is my first experience of flying alone. 
 It is the ............................................................................................................................................... 
Question 2: I’m sorry I didn’t look at the hotel room before I booked it. 
 I regret ............................................................................................................................................... 
Question 3: Dr. Atherton finally succeeded in discovering the secret formula. 
 Dr. Atherton finally managed ................................................................................................................ 
Question 4: I should have taken my medicine this morning but I didn’t remember. 
 I forgot ............................................................................................................................................... 
Question 5: I’m sure it wasn’t Tim who called you because I saw him outside. 
 It ........................................................................................................................................................ 
II. Write a paragraph of 120-140 words about the benefits of reading books. 
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