Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia lần I môn Tiếng Anh - Mã đề thi 130 - Năm học 2016-2017 - Trường THPT Lương Ngọc Quyến

SỞ GD VÀ ĐT THÁI NGUYÊN
TRƯỜNG THPT
LƯƠNG NGỌC QUYẾN
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG LẦN I NĂM HỌC 2016-2017
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút 
(Không kể thời gian giao đề)
Mã đề thi 130
Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:...............................................................................
Question 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in the following question.
A. boot	B. good	C. book	D. foot
Question 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following question.
Instead of buying a new pair of shoes, I had my old ones ______.
A. repair	B. repairing	C. repaired	D. to repair
Question 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following question.
Don’t forget ______ me as soon as you arrive at the airport.
A. called	B. call	C. calling	D. to call
Question 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
After Mary finishes her “degree” , she intends to work in her father's company.
A. an institution for business studies	B. a university or college course
C. an amount or level of something	D. a unit for measuring angles
Question 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the following question.
Bill is often late for class, which makes his teachers angrily.
 A B C D
Question 6: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
The old houses were “knocked down” to make way for a new block of flats.
A. abolished	B. pulled apart	C. struck through	D. demolished
Question 7: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the following question.
The train drivers' strike made it hard for us to get to work.
A. We found it difficult to get to work because of the train drivers' strike.
B. When the train drivers were having a strike, we could get to work.
C. We were unable to get to work when the train drivers' strike happened.
D. The train drivers' strike made it impossible for us to get to work.
Question 8: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the following question.
In the end of the party, Mary had to wash the dishes alone again, as usual .
 A B C D
Question 9: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following question.
 He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. He is very intelligentthat he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
D. So intelligent a student is hethat he can solve all the problems in no time.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 10 to 16
Mandatory volunteering made many members of Maryland's high school class of 97 grumble with indignation . They didn't like a new requirement that made them take part in the school's community service program. Future seniors, however, probably won't be as resistant now that the program has broken in. Some, like John Maloney, already have completed their required hours of approved community service. The Bowie High School sophomore earned his hours in eighth grade by volunteering two nights a week at the Larkin-Chase Nursing and Restorative Center in Bowie.
He played shuffle board, cards, and other games with the senior citizens. He also helped plan parties for them and visited their rooms to keep them company. 
John, fifteen, is not finished volunteering. Once a week he videotapes animals at the Prince George's County animal shelter in Forestville. His footage is shown on the Bowie public access television channel in hopes of finding homes for the animals. 
"Volunteering is better than just sitting around," says John, "and I like animals; I don't want to see them put to sleep." 
He's not the only volunteer in his family. His sister, Melissa, an eighth grader, has completed her hours also volunteering at Larkin-Chase. 
"It is a good idea to have kids go out into the community, but it's frustrating to have to write essays about the works," she said. It makes you feel like you're doing it for the requirement and not for yourself." 
The high school's service learning office, run by Beth Ansley, provides information on organizations seeking volunteers so that students will have an easier time fulfilling their hours. 
"It's ridiculous that people are opposing the requirements," said Amy Rouse, who this summer has worked at the Ronald McDonald House and has helped to rebuild a church in Clinton.
"So many people won't do the service unless it's mandatory," Rouse said, "but once they start doing it, they'll really like it and hopefully it will become a part of their lives - like it has become a part of mine."
Question 10: The best title of the passage could be ______.
A. "Students Who Volunteer to Work with Senior Citizens"
B. "The High School Class of 1977"
C. "Students Who Earn Extra Money after School"
D. "A Volunteer Program at Bowie High School"
Question 11: The word "frustrating" in paragraph 7 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. upset	B. happy	C. satisfying	D. interesting
Question 12: The word "it" in paragraph 7 refers to ______.
A. doing volunteer work	B. completing requirements
C. going out in the community	D. writing essays
Question 13: From paragraphs 6 and 7, we can infer that Melissa Maloney ______.
A. volunteers because it's a requirement
B. volunteers because it makes her feel good
C. is frustrated by her volunteer job
D. doesn't like to write essays about her volunteer work
Question 14: According to the last two paragraphs, Amy Rouse thinks that ______.
A. people should be able to choose whether they want to volunteer
B. the volunteer program shouldn't be mandatory
C. most people will discover they enjoy volunteering if they try it
D. most people don't like volunteering, so they don't want to do it
Question 15: Which of the following volunteer activities is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Videotaping animals in a shelter.	B. Tutoring children.
C. Rebuilding a church.	D. Visiting elderly people.
Question 16: In the passage, the author gives the explanation of the concept of mandatory volunteer programs by ______.
A. comparing two volunteer programs
B. describing one volunteer program
C. classifying different types of volunteer programs
D. arguing in favor of volunteer programs
Question 17: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in the following question.
A. economics	B. photography	C. calculation	D. conservation
Question 18: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following question.
Mike: “Would you like a cup of coffee?” 
Ann: “__________.”
A. Yes, please	B. No, I don’t like	C. No, I don’t	D. Yes, I do
Question 19: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following question.
How ______ homework did the teacher assign?
A. much	B. plenty	C. little	D. many
Question 20: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following question.
Peter has been studying for almost three years and he will have his degree and return to his country in ______ six months.
A. others	B. another	C. other	D. the other
Question 21: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following question.
The director ______ the men to turn to work immediately.
A. ordered	B. insisted	C. demanded	D. suggested
Question 22: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following question.
Tom: “Hello, nice to see you again.”
 Jerry: “___________.”
A. You shouldn’t be so	B. Neither am I
C. I don’t think you are	D. Me too
Question 23: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following question.
Many of pictures ______ from outer space are presently on display in the public library.
A. that sent	B. to sending	C. sending	D. sent
Question 24: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following question.
I like her, ______ she can be very annoying at times.
A. however	B. therefore	C. even though	D. despite
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 25 to 32
The mineral particles found in soil range in size from microscopic clay particles to large boulders. The most abundant particles - sand, silt, and clay - are the focus of examination in studies of soil texture. Texture is the term used to describe the line composite sizes of particles in a soil sample, typically several representative handfuls . To measure soil texture, the sand, silt, and clay particles are sorted out by size and weight. The weights of each size are then expressed as a percentage of the sample weight. 
In the field, soil texture can be estimated by extracting a handful of sod and squeezing the damp soil into three basic shapes; (1) cast, a lump formed by squeezing a sample in a clenched fist; (2) thread, a pencil shape formed by rolling soil between the palms; and (3) ribbon, a flatfish shape formed by squeezing a small sample between the thumb and index finger. The behavioral characteristics of the soil when molded into each of these shapes, if they can be formed at all, provides the basis for a general textural classification. The behavior of the soil in the hand test is determined by the amount of clay in the sample. Clay particles are highly cohesive, and when dampened , behave as a plastic. Therefore the higher the clay content in a sample, the more refined and durable the shapes into which it can be molded.
Another method of determining soil texture involves the use of devices called sediment sieves, screens built with a specified mesh size. When the soil is filtered through a group of sieves, each with a different mesh size, the particles become grouped in corresponding size categories. Each category can be weighed to make a textural determination. Although sieves work well for silt, sand, and larger particles, they are not appropriate for clay particles. Clay is far too small to sieve accurately; therefore, in soils with a high proportion of clay, the fine particles are measured on the basis of their settling velocity when suspended in water. Since clays settle so slowly, they are easily segregated from sand and silt. The water can be drawn off and evaporated, leaving a residue of clay, which can be weighed.
Question 25: The author mentions "several representative handfuls" in the passage in order to show ______.
A. the range of soil samples	B. the requirements for an adequate soil sam
C. the process by which soil is weighed	D. how small soil particles are
Question 26: It can be inferred that the names of the three basic shapes mentioned in paragraph 2 reflect ______.
A. the way the soil is extracted	B. the need to check more than one handful
C. the difficulty of forming different shapes	D. the results of squeezing the soil
Question 27: The word "dampened" in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. damaged	B. stretched	C. moistened	D. examined
Question 28: It can be inferred from the passage that a soil sample with little or no clay in it ______.
A. does not have a durable shape	B. is not very heavy
C. may not hold its shape when molded	D. does not have a classifiable texture
Question 29: The word "they" in the passage refers to ______.
A. larger particles	B. sieves	C. categories	D. clay particles
Question 30: It can be inferred from the passage that the sediment sieve has an advantage over the hand test in determining soil texture because ______.
A. the sieve allows for a more exact measure	B. less training is required to use the sieve
C. using the sieve takes less time	D. the sieve can measure clay
Question 31: During the procedure described in paragraph 3, when clay particles are placed into water they ______.
A. stick to the sides of the water container	B. dissolve quickly
C. take some time to sink to the bottom	D. separate into different sizes
Question 32: The word "fine" in the passage is closest in meaning to ______.
A. many	B. excellent	C. tiny	D. various
Question 33: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in the following question.
A. chocolate	B. chemistry	C. lunch	D. speech
Question 34: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following question.
______number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn’t know _____ exact number of them.
A. The/an	B. The/the	C. A/the	D. A/an
Question 35: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following question.
Do you have ______ minutes? I’d like to ask you some s.
A. little	B. a little	C. a few	D. few
Question 36: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following question.
He ______ for two weeks. He is trying to give it up.
A. hasn’t smoked	B. didn’t smoked	C. doesn’t smoke	D. isn’t smoking
Question 37: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
The boy wasn't allowed to have any friends, so he became an introvert.
A. someone who is active and confident, and who enjoys spending time with other people
B. someone who is quiet and shy, and does not enjoy being with other people
C. someone who believes that good things will never happen to him and other people
D. someone who wears funny clothes and does silly things to make people laugh
Question 38: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the following question.
The garage serviced my car last week.
A. I got my car serviced last week.	B. My car was to be serviced last week.
C. The garage’s service to my car was good.	D. Last week I went to the garage by car.
Question 39: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the following question.
The train should be here any minute now.
A. We know that the train is always here on time. B. The train has not arrived here yet.
C. The train is known to be here in a minute. D. We are expecting the train to arrive soon.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 40 to 44
By the 1950s many American families owned television sets. During television's first 20 years, deaf people missed most of the fun. They could not hear what was being said and had to (40) _____. 
Deaf people who watched television liked sports and action shows, but they were disappointed with other programs. If there was a lot of (41)_____, deaf viewers couldn't follow the plot. Even the most skilled lip readers could only catch part of the talking. This frustrated many deaf people. 
In the late 1960s, a man started experimenting. Malcom Norwood thought that deaf people could enjoy television programs, too. He wanted to develop captions for the programs. Norwood worked for the federal government's Media Services and Captioned Films Division at the Bureau of Education of the Handicapped. Norwood surveyed many hearing Americans. He wanted to see how they felt about seeing captions on the television screen. Too many people were against the (42)_____. Norwood realized he had to develop another way of captioning - one that would not bother hearing people. 
In October of 1971, Norwood's (43)_____ signed a contract with WGBH-TV, a public television station in Boston. WGBH was hired to experiment with captions. They agreed to make a captioned television program for Norwood. That program was made. It was shown on television and at a special convention. The type of captions made by WGBH could be seen on any television. No special equipment was needed. These were called "open captions." 
Later, a new machine was invented. This device was made to send signals on a special part of the television picture. The signals could be captions. If a family had another kind of machine in their home or in their TV set, then the captions (or signals) would appear on their television screen. Without the machine, no captions would be seen. That special machine is called a decoder. It receives the signals (44)_____from the television station. Captions that require a decoder are called "closed captions".
Question 40: A. forecast	B. find	C. guess	D. wait
Question 41: A. scene	B. dialogue	C. talk	D. conversation
Question 42: A. law	B. questions	C. actors	D. idea
Question 43: A. students	B. channels	C. company	D. office
Question 44: A. moved	B. gone	C. transmitted	D. sent
Question 45: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following question.
He is a _______ boy. He is often kind and helpful to every classmate.
A. obedient	B. frank	C. caring	D. lovely
Question 46: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following question.
During his _____, he lived with his uncle’s family in the United States.
A. child	B. childlike	C. childish	D. childhood
Question 47: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.
Simon admitted that his joke on his girlfriend’s clothes was deliberate.
A. unintentional	B. planned	C. unwanted	D. unknown
Question 48: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in the following question.
A. consider	B. industry	C. eventual	D. adventure
Question 49: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the following question.
The oceans,which cover two-thirds of earth’s surface , are the object of study for oceanographers.
 A B C D
Question 50: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following question.
We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
-----------------------------------------------
----------- THE END----------