ĐỀ THI THỬ TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề ( Đề thi gồm có: 05 trang) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. eliminate B. elephant C. endanger D. erosion Question 2: A. worked B. stopped C. watched D. visited Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. technology B. important C. popularity D. impossible Question 4: A. result B. hardly C. method D. farmer Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: Everything would have been all right if you did not make such a mistake. A B C D Question 6: When it was first establish in 1973, it consisted of only two hectares of land. A B C D Question 7: Would you mind lend me your motorbike until next week? A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: He looked tired because he __________ for six hours. A. has been running B. was running C. had been running D. has run Question 9: After Ann got a speeding ticket and had to pay a big fine, she decided ________ driving over the speed limit on interstate highways. A. to stop B. stopping C. having stopped D. stopped Question 10: This shirt is _______________ that one. A. a bit less expensive B. as much expensive as C. not nearly as expensive as D. much far expensive than Question 11: It is essential that Alice ______________ about his responsibilities in the meeting tomorrow. A. be reminded B. must remind C. will be reminded D. will remind Question 12: ____________ he had time to settle down than he sold the house. A. Not until had B. No longer has C. No sooner had D. Hardly had Question 13: Linda and Sandra hopes to get a well- paid job as soon as possible, ___________? A. doesn’t he B. hasn’t he C. haven’t they D. don’t they Question 14: ________ I was dead tired, I walked all the way home. A. Although B. Because C. Despite D. Because of Question 15: Remember to take __________ your shoes when you are in a Japanese house. A. on B. off C. over D. into Question 16: We’d better _________ if we want to get there in time. A. slow down B. take up C. put down D. speed up Question 17: My friend bought a ____________ belt from a shop on Tran Phu street. A. brown nice leather B. nice brown leather C. leather brown nice D. nice leather brown Question 18: We were __________. All the tickets had been sold. A. out of work B. out of luck C. out of reach D. out of the question Question 19: Before you start cooking, you should gather together all the necessary ___________. A. elements B. factors C. ingredients D. substances Question 20: Jane: “I think it is a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof.” Linda: “______________. Family members can help each other a lot.” A. It’s not true B. That’s wrong C. I couldn’t agree any more D. I don’t agree Question 21: Ann: “How well you are playing, Peter!” Peter: “____________________________.” A. Say it again. I like to hear your words B. I hope not C. I think so. I’m proud of myself D. Thanks, that’s a nice compliment Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The narrow, green-grey leaves of the sweet alyssum are untoothed and usually bear many silvery hairs. A. carry B. yield C. replace A. hide Question 23: With the advent of computers, many tasks have been made easier. A. beginning B. arrival C. disappearance D. vanishing Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: Mrs Sullivan is a very generous lady. She has given most of her wealth to help homeless people. A. mean B. filthy C. kind D. hospitable Question 25: Dr. Johns suggested that final examinations should be discontinued, an innovation I heartily support. A. stopped B. remained C. exaggerated D. went on Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is correct and closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: He’ll know if he’s got the position or not sometime before 5 o’clock today. A. If they decide to accept him for the position, they’ll contact him around 5 o’clock today B. Although it seems certain that he will be accepted, the decision won’t be made known to him until 5 o’clock. C. If he has been accepted for the position, he will receive the confirmation at around 5 p.m today. D. By 5 p.m today he’ll have been informed about whether he’s been accepted for the position. Question 27: The writer Kate Millett was forced to stay in a psychiatric hospital by her family. A. Problems with her family made the writer Kate Millett go to a psychiatric hospital. B. Together with her family, the writer Kate Millett was made to go into a psychiatric hospital. C. The writer Kate Millett’s family made her stay in a psychiatric hospital. D. The family of the writer Kate Millett convinced her to remain in a psychiatric hospital. Question 28: Hardly anyone can resist the taste of sushi once they have tried it. A. So tasty is sushi that, once you have actually tasted it, it’s impossible not to want to taste it again. B. Nobody who has tried sushi is able to withstand the temptation to taste it again. C. Nearly everyone who has once experienced the taste of sushi would like to experience it again. D. Very few people who have experienced sushi will find it tasty enough to want to experience it again. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the following pairs of sentences in each of the following questions. Question 29: “ Cigarette?”, he asked. “ No, thanks.” I said A. He asked for a cigarette, and I immediately refused. B. He mentioned a cigarette, so I thanked him. C. He offered me a cigarette, but I promptly declined. D. He asked if I was smoking, and I denied at once. Question 30: One student failed because he completely ignored the instructions on the paper. The instruction appeared at the top of every page. A. One student failed to ignore the instructions printed at the top of every page. B. No matter how completely one student ignored the instructions printed at the top of every page, he failed. C. Eventhough one student ignored the instructions printed at the top of every page, he failed. D. One student failed because he completely ignored the instructions appearing at the top of every page of the paper. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the following blanks Around the age of eighteen, you must make one of the biggest decisions of your life. "Do I stay on at school and hopefully go on to university later? Do I leave and start work or beginning a training (31)_________?". The decision is yours, but it may be (32)________ remembering two things: there is more unemployment among people who haven't been to university, and people who have the right (33)________ will have a big advantage in the competition for jobs. If you decide to go (34)________ into a job, there are many opportunities for training. Getting qualifications will help you to get on more quickly in many careers, and evening classes allow you to learn while you earn. Starting work and taking a break to study when you are older is (35)________ possibility. This way, you can save up money for your student days, as well as getting practical work experience. Question 31: A. school B. class C. course D. term Question 32: A. worth B. necessary C. important D. useful Question 33: A. notes B. papers C. arts D. skills Question 34: A. straight B. just C. direct D. rather Question 35: A. also B. again C. another D. always Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions from 36 -42. It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What causes extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a changed environment, it may perish. The exact causes of a species’death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change may render an environment hostile to a species. For example, temperatures may change and a species may not be able to adapt. Food resources may be affected by environmental changes, which will then cause problems for a species requiring these resources. Other species may become better adapted to an environment, resulting in competition and utimately, in the death of a species. The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent analyses have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the same time – a mass extinction. One of the best- known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago with the demise of dinosaurs and many other forms of life. Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one that occurred 225 million years ago, when approximately 95 percent of all species died, mass extinctions can be caused by a relatively rapid change in the environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many species. If, for example, something were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen content of Earth would drop, affecting even organisms not living in the oceans. Such a change would probably lead to a mass extinction. One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 million years have tended to be more intense every 26 million years. This periodic extinction might be due to intersection of the Earth’s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative.Some researchers have also speculated that extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may survive for no particular reason. A species’survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to adapt. If so, some of evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events. Question 36: The word “it” in line 2 refers to ______ A. environment B. species C. extinction D. 99 percent Question 37: The word “utimately” is closest in meaning to________ A. exceptionally B. dramatically C. eventually D. unfortunately Question 38: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as a resulting from rapid ecological change? A. Temperature changes B. Availability of food resources C. Introduction of new species D. Competition among species Question 39: The word “demise” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________ A. change B. recovery C. help D. death Question 40: According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that _________ A. extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth’s history B. Extinctions on Earth have generally been massive C. There has been only one mass extinction in Earth’s history D. dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed. Question 41: Which of the following can be inferred from the last paragraph? A. Many scientists could be expected to disagree with it B. Evidence to support the theory has recently been found C. The theory is no longer seriously considered D. Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate Question 42: According to the passage, it is believed that the largest extinction of a species occurred _____ A. 26 million years ago B. 65 million years ago C. 225 million years ago D. 250 million years ago Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions from 43 – 50. A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionaire, that provides information concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the best known surveys are the Gallup polland the Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during presidential campaigns knows, these polls have become an important part of political life in the United States. North Americans are familiar with the many “ person on the street” interviews on local television news shows. While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not necessarily an accurate indication of public opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only those people who appear at a certain location. Thus, such samples can be biased in favor of commuters, middle – class shoppers, or factory workers, depending on which areas the newspeople select. Second, television interviews tend to attract outgoing people who are willing to appear on the air, while they frighten away others who may feel intimidated by a camera. A survey must based on a precise, representative sampling if it is to genuinely reflect a broad range of the population. In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercice great care in the wording of questions. An effective survey question must be simple and clear enough for people to understand it. It must also be specific enough so that there are no problems in interpreting the results. Even questions that are less structured must be carefully phrased in order to elicit the type of information desired. Surveys can be indispensable sources of information, but only if the sampling is done properly and the questions are worded accutately. There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionaire. Each of these forms of survey research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain a high response rate because people find it more difficult to turn down a personal request for an interview than to throw away a written qustionaire.In addition, an interviewer can go beyond written questions and probe for a subject’s underlying feelings and reasons. However, questionaires have the advantage of being cheaper and more consistent. Question 43: What does the passage mainly discussed? A. The history of surveys in North America B. The principles of conducting surveys C. Problems associated with interpreting surveys D. The importance of polls in American political life Question 44: The word “ They” in line 7 refers to _____________ A. North American B. news shows C. interviewss D. opinions Question 45: According to the passage, the main disadvantage of person – on –the –street interviews is that they ___________ A. are not based on a representative B. are used only on television C. are not carefully worded D. reflect politicalopinions Question 46: The word “ precise” is closest in meaning to ________ A. planned B. rational C. required D. accurate Question 47: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is most important for an effective survey? A. A high number of respondents B. Carefully worded questions C. An interviewer’s ability to measure respondents’ feeling D. A sociologist who is able to interpret the results. Question 48: It can be inferred from the passage that one reason that sociologists may become frustrated with questionaires is that ________________ A. respondents often do not complete and return questionaires B. questionaires are often difficult to read C. questionaires are expensive and difficult to distribute D. respondents are too eager to supplement questions with their own opinions Question 49: According to the passage, one advantage of live interviews over qustionaires is that live interviews __________________ A. cost less B. can produce more information C. are easier to interpret D. minimize the influence of the researcher Question 50: The word “ probe” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ____________ A. explore B. influence C. analyze D. apply THE END ĐÁP ÁN- THANG ĐIỂM ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA (NĂM 2016- 2017) Môn: Tiếng Anh 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 B D C A C B B A A C 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A C D A B D B B C C 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 D B B A D D C C C D 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 C A D A C B C C D A 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 A C B C A D B A B A (Mỗi câu đúng được 0.2 điểm)
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