Đề thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2017 - Đề 2 - Trần Thị Ánh (Có đáp án)

 BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO 
KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part 
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
Question 1: A. noticed 	B. overlooked 	C. believed 	D. published 
Question 2: A. houses 	 B. clothes 	C. matches 	D. stages
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other 
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 
Question 3: A. process B. secure 	C. market 	D. member 
Question 4: A. admit 	B. propose 	C. require 	D. hurry 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs 
correction in each of the following questions. 
Question 5: Do you ever feel that life is not being fair to you because you cannot seem to get the job where you 
 A B C D
want or that really suits you? 
Question 6: Education and training are an important steps in getting the kind of job that you would like to have.
 A B C D
Question 7: We all know that we have to work hardly to earn a living ourselves and support the family. 
 	 A B 	 C D 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 
Question 8: Those companies were closed due to some seriously financial problems.
A. taken off	B. put away 	C. wiped out 	D. gone over
Question 9: The computer allows us to work fast and _______.
A. efficiently 	B. differently 	C. variously 	D. freshly
Question 10: They arrived _______ that train station late because their taxi had broken _______.
A. on / up	B. for / off 	C. on / over 	D. at / down 
Question 11: More and more ________ are very excited at discovering as many interesting things in the deserts as possible. 
A. explores 	B. explorations 	 C. explorers 	D. exploratory
Question 12: Can you make a ________ estimate of how much our expedition in the desert may be?
A. rough 	B. roughly 	C. roughing 	D. roughen
Question 13: After Peter had returned from the Sahara desert, he was confined to bed by a ________ disease. 
A. mystery 	 B. mysterious C. mysteriously D. mysteriousness
Question 14: It is found that endangered species are often concentrated in areas that are poor and densely populated, such as much of Asia and Africa.
A. disappeared 	 B. increased 	C. reduced	 D. threatened 
Question 15: _______ is the existence of a wide variety of plant and animal species living in their natural environment. .
A. Biodiversity 	B. Conservation 	C. Globe 	D. Individual
Question 16: The more' goals the players _______, the more exciting the match became.
A. marked 	B. made 	C. scored 	D. sprinted
Question 17: After a tie, there are two overtime periods of three minutes each.
A. penalty 	B. draw 	C. score 	D. goal
Question 18: The goalkeeper can also be ejected for twenty seconds if a major foul is committed.
A. advanced 	B. sprinted 	C. played 	D. excluded
Question 19: A goalie who aggressively fouls an attacker in position to score can be charged with a _______ shot for the other team.
A. penalty 	B. preventing 	C. scoring 	D. ranging
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. 
Question 20: - Marie: “What a lovely house you have!” - Phil: “_______.”
 A. No problem. 	B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in. 	 C. I think so. 	 D. Of course not, it’s costly. 
Question 21: - “ ______ “ - “Delighted I was able to help.”. 
A. Isn’t it a great reunion? 	 B.Can I help you?	
C. Thank you for your lovely welcome. D. We are delighted. It’s kind of you
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Question 22: In the 1980s TV viewers began to hook up videocassette players to their TVs.
A. question 	B. violate 	C. disregard 	D. follow 
Question 23: The removal of cataracts in the eyes by laser has become a common procedure.. 
A. method 	 B. belief 	 C. improvement 	D. conversations 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Question 24: Tired of being a tiny cog in a vast machine , he handed in his resignation. 
A. an impotant person 	B. a large piece of equipment 	C. a small group of people 	D. a significant instrument
Question 25: Training of the Olympics requires an enormous amount of work: athletes who want to compete must work extremely hard. 
A. very large B. small C. unusual D. very common	 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 
Question 26: “How long will the interview take?”. 
A. I had no idea how the interview would be taken. 
B. I wanted to know how long the interview would take. 
C. i asked how long the interview could talk. 
D. I asked him if the interview would take long. 
Question 27: She asked me when I had gone on my vacation the previous summer. 
A. “Where did I go on my vacation last summer?” 
B. She ordered me to see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up. 
C. She insisted that I see a doctor unless the sore throat did not clear up. 
D. She suggested that I see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up. 
Question 28: Without her teacher‘s advice, she would never have written such a good essay. 
A. Her teacher advised him and she didn‘t write a good essay. 
B. Her teacher didn‘t advise her and she didn‘t write a good essay. 
C. She wrote a good essay as her teacher gave her some advice. 
D. If her teacher didn‘t advise her, she wouldn‘t write such a good essay. 
Choose the correct sentence among A,B,C or D which has the same meaning as the given one. 
Question 29: She stared school when she was six years old. 
A. At the year of six, she started school. C. At the old of six, she started school. 
B. At the time of six, she started school. D. At the age of six, she started school. 
Question 30: He couldn’t afford the flat. 
A. He didn’t have enough money for the flat. C. He couldn’t stay in the flat. 
B. He had never afforded for the flat. D. He wouldn’t buy the flat. 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. 
CYCLING ROUND CORNERS
 Taking a cỏrner is one of the most satisfying moves you can make on a bike. It’s fun, it’s exciting, and it also happens to be one of the (31)________ things to learn. Even an experienced rider can always (32)_______ improvements in this area. Good cornering is the ability to cycle through a turn under full control, no matter what the conditions. This might mean racing (33) ______ high speed down a winding descent, but just as important is the ability to deal with a slow, sharp turn while you are touring with lots of luggage. In both these cases there are some general points to remember.
 When going very slowly you can steer through a corner using your hands on the handlebars wheraeas as speed increases, any sudden turning of the front wheel is likely to result in loss on control. To avoid this effect, a bike (34) ______ be turned by leaning it, by steering with the body instead of the hands. On sharp turns of more than about 70 degrees, even this is not enough: you must also lower your body towards the bike as much as you can to help (35) ________ it from slipping out from under you. When you are cornering correctly you will feel very solid. It’s a good feeling – exciting but not really dangerous. 
Question 31: A. hardest 	B. easiest 	C. funniest 	D. fastest 
Question 32: A. do 	 B. achieve 	 C. make 	D. obtain
Question 33: A. in 	 B. from 	 C. to 	 D. at 
Question 34: A. may B. must C. would D. can
Question 35: A. save B. retain C. keep D. hold
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. 
 Until recently, hunting for treasure from shipwrecks was mostly fantasy, with recent technological advances, however, the search for sunken treasure has become more popular as a legitimate endeavor. This has caused a debate between those wanting to salvage the wrecks and those wanting to preserve them. 
 Treasure hunters are spurred on by the thought of finding catches of gold coins or other valuable objects on a sunken ship. One team of salvagers, for instance, searched the wreck of the RMS Republic, which sank outside the Boston harbor in 1900. the search party, using side-scan sonar, a device that projects sound waves across the ocean bottom and produces a profile of the sea floor, located the wreck in just two and a half days. Before the use of this new technology, such searches could take months or years. The team of 45 divers seached the wreck for two months, finding silver tea services, crystal dinnerware, and thousands of bottles of wine, but they did not find the five and a hafl tons of American Gold Eagle coins they were searching for. 
 Preservationists focus on the historic value of a ship. They say that even if a shipwreck’s treasure does not have a high monetary value, it can be an invaluable source of historic artifacts that are preserved in nearly mint condition. But once s salvage team has scoured a site, much of the archaeological value is lost. Maritime archaeologists who are preservationists worry that the success of salvagers will attract more treasure-hunting expeditions and thus threaten remaining undiscovered wrecks. Preservationists are lobbying their state lawmakers to legally restrict underwater searches and unregulated salvages. To counter their efforts, treasure hunters argue that without the lure of gold and million-dollar treasure, the wrecks and their historical artifacts would never be recovered at all.
Question 36: The word “sunken” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following words?
A. broken B. underwater C. ancienr D. hollow 
Question 37: Which of the following could best replace the phrase “a profile” in the second paragraph? 
A. a projection B. an execution C. a highlight D. an outline 
Question 38: All of the following were found on the RMS Republic EXCEPT_______.
A. wine bottles B. silver tea services 
C. American Gold Eagle coins D. crystal dinnerware 
Question 39: From the passage, you can infer that a preservationist would be most likely to _______. 
A. shun treasure-seeking salvagers B. be a diver 
C. put treasures in a museum D. do archaeological research 
Question 40: The word “scoured” in the third paragraph is most similar to which of the following ? 
A. scraped away B. scratched over 
C. scrambled around D. searched around 
Question 41: What is the closest meaning to the word “lure” in the third paragraph? 
A. knowledge. B. luxury C. attraction D. glare
Question 42: The second and third paragraphs are an example of___________. 
A. chronological order. B. explanation. 
C. specific to general. D. definition. 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. 
 It is hard to find artifacts that are genuinely American, but the present day banjo may be one of them. Even though its ancestry in African, the modern banjo is nothing like the early instruments first brough by African to the southern plantations. In the nineteenth century, the banjo was a standard instrument in minstrel shows, and, as it continued to be used, it was changed in various ways. Machined pegs were added for precise tuning, frets were added for better intonation, and vellum heads were added to improve the tension. The number of strings also continued to change. Early banjo had four strings, while later models had as many as nine. In the late 1800s, the five-string banjo was developed, a model that had a small unfretted drone string that was playes with the thumb. This was the instrument that country singer Earl Scruggs played, and was the type used to produce that great style of music known as American bluegrass.
 In the 1920s, the four-string tenor banjo made a ramarkable comeback, as banjo bands became popular in schools and clubs from coast to coast. Again in the 1960s, there was a renewed interest in folk and country music that brought the banjo back into the forefont of American 20. It is an American instrument that continues to live on. 
Question 43: What does this passage mainly discuss? 
A. the lasting effects of bluegrass music 	 B. the life of a banjo 
C. the development of an American instrument D. changes in music in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries Question 44: The banjo orginally came from ______. 
A. southern plantations 	 B. folk and country music 	
C. minstrel shows 	 D. Africa
Question 45: Which of the following words is most similar to the word “pegs” in the first paragraph? 
A. holes 	 B. bars C. pins 	 D. strings 
Question 46: The word “precise” in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following ?
A. accurate B. confirmed C. processed 	 D. forthcoming 
Question 47: According to the passage, all of the following are true of the five-string banjo EXCEPT ______. 
A. it was used by Earl Scruggs 	 C. it had an unfretted string 
B. it was famous in the production of bluegrass music 	 D. it was a tenor banjo
Question 48: The word “renewed” in the second paragraph could be best replaced by which of the following? 
A. rescued B. remarkable C. revived 	D. renowned 
Question 49: Which of the following means most nearly the same as the word “forefont’ in the second paragraph? 
A. spotlight 	B. forecast C. footnote 	 D. record 
Question 50: Which of the following best indicates the author’s attitude toward the banjo? 
A. It is a unipue instrument. B. It should be in a museum. 
C. It should be used more. D. It must be kept alive
________THE END_________
 Keys
1. C
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. D
6. B
7. B
8. C
9. A
10. D
11. C
12. A
13. B
14. D
15. A
16. C
17. B
18. D
19. A
20. B
21. C
22. B
23. A
24. A
25. B
26. B
27. D
28. B
29. D
30. A
31. A
32. C
33. D
34. B
35. C
36. B
37. D
38. C
39. A
40. D
41. B
42. C
43. C
44. D
45. C
46. A
47. D
48. C
49. A
50. A
 Người ra đề Người thẩm định 
 Trần Thị Ánh Nguyễn Thị Nguyên