Đề thi olympic môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 - Đề 8 - Năm học 2014-2015 - Phòng GD & ĐT Thanh Oai (Có đáp án)

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Đề thi olympic môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 - Đề 8 - Năm học 2014-2015 - Phòng GD & ĐT Thanh Oai (Có đáp án)
PHÒNG GD&ĐT THANH OAI
 ĐỀ THI TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 
 Năm học: 2014 – 2015
 Môn: Tiếng Anh 
Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 04 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 04.	 
- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này.
Điểm
Số phách
I. PHONETICS: 
a. Choose one word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others 
 by circling A, B, C, or D. (60,2=1,2 pt)
1.
A. invitation
B. intersection
C. station
D. question
2.
A. lives
B. misses
C. languages
D. watches
3.
A. down
B. brown
C. town
D. show
4.
A. between
B. behind
C. bakery
D. geography
5.
A. thank
B. thin
C. mother
D. tooth
6. 
A. year
B. repeat
C. meat
D. teacher
b. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others (40,2=0,8 pt)
7.
A. weather
B. idea
C. winter
D. movies
8.
A. morning
B. number
C. routine
D. ruler
9.
A. dangerous
B. accident
C. telephone
D. engineer 
10.
A. favorite
B. banana
C. tomato
D. potato
II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR: 
a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (150,2=3,0 pts)
11. How often do you do morning exercises in the summer? 
A. I like it
B. I play soccer
C. Yes, I do
D. I sometimes do
12. We are going to have an English examination  April, 21st .	
A. on
B. to
C. at
D. in
13. There is a lot of in Viet Nam. Our country is very green. 
A. sun
B. sunny
C. rainy
D. rain
14. My friend, Linh drinks cocacola and beer.
 A. don’t
B. never
C. doesn’t
D. isn’t
15. is your uncle going to stay here? - about three days.
A. How long - For	
B. How far - For
C. How long - At
D. How long - From
16. do they go to work every morning? - On foot.
A. How
B. How far
C. How long
D. How often
17. The room of my parents is small. “The room of my parents” means:
A. my room’s parents 
B. my room’ parents
C. my parents’s room
D. my parents’ room
18. There are five in one hand.
A. arms
B. fingers
C. toes
D. feet	
19. Why don’t we go to the zoo this Sunday morning?
A. You are well
B. Because I don’t like animals
C. That’s a good idea
D. Thanks a lot
20. is your father? He is very well, thank you. 
A. How
B. How much
C. How many
D. How often
21. When it is hot, we often feel quite 	
A. happy
B. hungry
C. worried
D. thirsty
22. In our country, the weather often quickly. 
A. change
B. changes
C. is changing
D. is going to change
23. My French penpal, Jack can speak six fluently.
A. speeches
B. countries
C. languages
D. nationalities
24. What your little sister in the evening?
A. do / do
B. does / do
C. do / does
D. does / does
25. I want a good pair of shoes because I always goes in the morning.
 A. sailing
B. swimming
C. jogging
D. fishing
b. Fill in the blanks with the correct prepositions. (70,2=1,4 pts)
26. I usually go to school by bicycle but today I am going.foot.
27. Is there a flower garden . front of your house? - Yes, there is.
28. My mother wants a sandwich and a glass .orange juice.
29. What would you like.dinner? - I’d like some noodles.
30. The plane flies..mountains, rivers and towns.
31. What are they doing at the moment? - They are listening.the tape.
32. Elizabeth and Charls are .England. They speak English.
c. Write the correct form of the words given in capital letters: (60,2=1,2 pts)
33. My school is the ..one in Thanh Oai District. 	(NEW)
34. All of us are are very good ..	(STUDY)
35. In our school library, there are four ..	(BOOKSHELF)
36. Hung visits his grandparents ..a week.	(ONE)
37. My house is on the ..floor of that tall building.	 	(NINE)
38. Nobody in my class is ..than Trang. 	(GOOD)
d. Supply the correct form of the verbs in the brackets: (70,2=1,4 pts)
39. Look! The plane is flying towards the airport. It (land) .
40. Ha’s father (drive) .his car to the garage at the moment.
41. How your sister (go) .to school every day? - By motorbike, of course.
42. Mr. Tung is a teacher and he (not have)..classes in the afternoon.
43. You mustn’t (eat) .food in this canteen. 
44. The Nile River (flow) .to the Mediterranean Sea.
45. Mrs. Thuy is cleaning the windows and doors. Let’s (help) .her.
III. READING: 
a. Read and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage: (100,2=2,0pts)
 Everyone (46). oranges. They are quite sweet and juicy. They are in sections so (47). is very easy to eat them. Some oranges (48). not have seeds. Some (49). thick skins and some have thin skins. The orange tree is beautiful. It has a lot of (50).. leaves. The small white flowers smell very sweet. (51). orange tree has a lot of flowers and fruit at the same (52). . "Orange" is both a fruit (53). a colour. The (54). of orange is so beautiful that in English we use the name of the fruit (55). the colour.
46.
A. love
B. to love
C. loves
D. loving
47.
A. they
B. it
C. oranges
D. its
48.
A. do
B. does
C. is
D. are
49.
A. have
B. wear
C. put
D. take
50.
A. yellow
B. green
C. red
D. blue
51.
A. A
B. An
C. Some
D. Ø
52.
A. morning
B. afternoon
C. evening
D. time
53.
A. but
B. or
C. and
D. with
54.
A. colour
B. seed
C. tree
D. leaf
55.
A. to
B. at
C. from
D. for	
b. There is a mistake in each line of the following passage. Find and correct it: 
(5 0,2 =1.0 pt)
Eg: 0. The students is singing a song in their classroom.
0/ are
Peter and Bill are brothers. Peter is twelve and Bill is ten. They live with their parents and their dog in a small towns in the south of England. 
56. 
They do not look like each other. Peter is tall and dark and Bill is short and fair. They also like difference things. Peter likes sports but he is not
57. 
interested in school. He hates Mathematics and History and he never remembers the numbers. Bill likes to goes to school very much. He is 
58. 
quite good at learn English, he reads and writes a lot. Bill can draw very well, too. But he never plays sports.
59. 
He spends most of his time indoors reading or drawing. He wants to be a writer or a artist in the future. 
60. 
c. Read the passage and fill the suitable word in the blank: (100,2=2,0pts)
 My eldest brother, Tuyen is (61).. engineer in a big company. He lives in a small apartment on (62).. third floor of a building in Ha Noi. The company is far from his house, so he always goes to work (63).. bus. He leaves home at seven o’clock to get to work (64).. 7.45 a.m. It is Saturday morning now, and he is at home, in bed. (65)..Saturdays he often gets up at a quarter to seven in the (66)...,then he sits in the living room and (67).. breakfast. On Saturday afternoons, he usually plays tennis or (68).. swimming with some (69).. his friends. On Saturday evenings, he doesn’t stay at (70).. , he usually goes out.
IV. WRITING:
a. Rearrange the words to make meaningful sentences. (5 0,2 = 1.0 pt)
71. stay / grandparents / am / with / this / I / to / my / going / weekend./
-> ........................
72. out? / do/ want/ you/ when/ what/ you/ to/ say/ go/
-> ........................
73. often/ brother/ his/ listens/ in/ to/ time./ my/music/ free 
-> ........................
74. I/ to/ to/ every/ city/ buy/ go/ books/ Sunday morning./ the
-> ........................
75. good / the / there./ let’s / and / time / mountain / go / have / to / a /
-> ........................
b. Complete the second sentence, using the word given in brackets so that it has a similar 
 meaning to the first sentence. Do not change the word given in any way. (50,4=2,0 pts)
76. What about singing and dancing? 
-> Why don’t...?
77. Noone in our school is stronger than me.
-> I...........................?
78. What’s your brother’s height?
-> How .................?
79. His teacher of English always drives to work.
-> His teacher of English always goes.? 
80. Peter is 1.80 meters tall. Linda is 1.70 meters tall.
-> Linda......
 c. Write a composition (about 80 words) to tell about your family: (3,0pts)
(don’t show your name, your school or your village): 
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 6
 NĂM HỌC: 2014 – 2015
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
I. PHONETICS: 
a. Choose one word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C, or D: (60,2=1,2 pts)
1.
D. question
2.
A. lives
3.
D. show
4.
C. bakery
5.
C. mother
6. 
A. year
b. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others: (40,2=0,8 pt)
7.
B. idea
8.
C. routine
9.
D. engineer 
10.
A. favorite
II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:
a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (150,2=3,0 pts)
11 –D. 
I sometimes do
12 –A.
On
13 –D.
 rain
14 –B. 
never
15 –A. 
How long – For
16 –A. 
How 
17 - D.
 my parents’ room
18 –B. 
fingers
19 – C. 
That’s a good idea
20 –A. 
How
21 –D.
 thirsty
22 - B. 
changes
23 – C. 
languages
24 – B. 
does / do
25 – C. 
Jogging
b. Fill in the blanks with the correct prepositions: (70,2=1,4 pts)
26. on
27. in
28. of
29. for
30. over
31. to
32. from
c. Write the correct form of the words given in capital letters to complete the following sentences: (60,2=1,2 pts)
33. oldest
34. students
35. bookselves
36. once
37. ninth
38. better
d. Supply the correct form of the verbs in the brackets: (70,2=1,4 pts)
39. is going to land
40. is driving
41. does  go
42. doesn’t have
43. eat
44. flows
45. help
III. READING: 
a. Read and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage: (100,2=2,0 pts)
46 - C. loves
47 - B. it
48 - A. do
49 - A. have
50 - B. green
51 - B. An
52 - D. time
53 - C. and
54 - A. colour
55 - D. for
b. There is a mistake in each line of the following passage. Find and correct it: 
(5 0,2 =1.0 pt) 
56. towns -> town
57. difference -> different
58. goes -> go
59. learn -> learning
60. a -> an
c. Read the passage and fill the suitable word in the blank: (100,2=2,0 pts)
61. an
62. the
63. by
64. at
65. On
66. morning
67. has/ eats
68. goes
69. of
70. home
IV. WRITING:
a. Rearrange the words to make meaningful sentences. (5 0,2 = 1.0 pt)
71. I am going to stay with my grandparents this weekend.
72. What do you say when you want to go out?
73. My brother often listens to music in his free time.
74. I go to the city to buy books every Sunday morning.
75. Let's go to the mountain and have a good time there.
b. Complete the second sentence, using the word given in brackets so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. Do not change the word given in any way. (50,4=2,0 pts)
76. Why don’t we sing and dance? 
77. I am the strongest (student) in our school.
78. How tall is your brother?
79. His teacher of English always goes to work by car.
80. Linda is shorter than Peter.
c. Write a composition (about 80 words) about your family:
(Don’t show the name of the school): (3,0pts)
The essay must have at least three ideas below.
1. Mở bài: Nêu được chủ đề về gia đình. (được 0,5 điểm)
2. Thân bài: Nêu và kể được về các thành viên trong gia đình như: Tuổi, nghề nghiệp,hình dáng, vv (được 2,0 điểm)
3. Kết luận: Tóm tắt, khẳng định lại tất cả lý do đã trình bày ở hai phần trước hay cảm tưởng của học sinh về gia đình mình.
 	(được 0,5 điểm)

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