Đề thi dự phòng THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2017 - Trường THPT Cảm Nhân

SỞ GD&ĐT YÊN BÁI
TRƯỜNG THPT CẢM NHÂN
ĐỀ DỰ PHÒNG
Đề thi gồm có 04 trang
KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Môn TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
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Mark the fetter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part difers from the other three in pronounciation in each of the following Questions.
Question 1: 	A. scholar	B. chemist	C. watch	D. mechanic
Question 2: 	A. finished	B. washed	C. attended	D. passed 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each o f the following Questions.
Question 3: 	A. example	B. important	C. wonderful	D. imagine
Question 4: 	A. corridor	B. mystery	C. separate 	D. enormous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Malaysia has a total area in 330,252 square kilometres.
	 A B C D
Question 6: ASEAN was founded on 8th August, 1967 on Bangkok, Thailand by five 
 A B C D
Question 7: Don’t throw stones from the birds. That’s prohibited in here.
 	A	 B 	 C	 D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following Questions.
Question 8: World Health Organization is the United Nations __________agency for health.
A. special	B. specialized	C. specialize	D. specially
Question 9: The water was cold____________ I went swimming anyway.
A. but	B. so	C. however	D. althought
Question 10: Our classroom ______________ tomorrow before the teacher comes.
A. needn’t clean	B. clean	C. will clean	D. will be cleaned
Question 11: The 22nd SEA Games held in Vietnam with its spirit: solidarity, ____________ and development.
A. co-operate	B. co-operation	C. operate	D. operation
Question 12 We had an interesting discussion___________the problem but we didn’t reach a decision.
A. about	B. for	C. with	D. between
Question 13: John got ill and had to ____________smoking and drinking.
A. gave up	B. giving up	C. give up	D. continue
Question 14: If you have a book that is really interesting to you, you should read it _________ and carefully.
A. slowly	B. quick	C. slow	D. quickly
Question 15: He talked about the _________of black children into school system in the southern states of America.
A. integration	B. taking part in	C. joining in	D. intelgrate
Question 16: : ____________ is one of the main causes of species extinction.
A. Polltute	B. Pollutes	C. Pollution	D. Polluted
Question 17: : After he ____________ from univercity, he joined the army.
A. graduated	B. has graduated	C. graduates	D. had graduadted
Question 18: The more you practice English, _______________ you will learn.
A. the faster	B. the more fast	C. the fast	D. the sooner
Question 19: He looks stupid with his haircut and suits. Everyone will__________him.
A. invite to	B. wait for	C. listen to	D. laugh at
Mark your letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Trang: “Whose book is it?”
 	 Nga: “ I don’t know, but I think______________.”
A. it is Jim’	B. it is Jim’s	C. it is belong to Jim	D. it belongs to Jim’s
Question 21: Mai: “ Let’s go to the movie now.”
 	 Hai: “ Oh! _______________.”
A. Good idea!	B. I don’t	C. Why’s that?	D. I need it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Tourists today flock  to see the two falls that actually constitute Niagara falls.
A. come without knowing what they will see	 B. come in large numbers
C. come out of boredom	 D. come by plane
Question 23: Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars according to brightness.
 A. record       	B. shine         	C. categorize             	D. diversify
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Let's wait here for her; I'm sure she'll turn up before long.
A. arrive        	B. return        	C. enter         	D. visit
Question 25: With the dawn of space exploration, the notion that atmospheric conditions on Earth may be unique in the solar system was strengthened.
A. outcome   	B. continuation      C. beginning             	D. expansion
Choose the best sentence that can be made from the words given.
Question 26: Red / years /the International /Cross/over 135/ago/ started
A. The International Cross Red started over 135 years ago.
B. Red Cross The International started over 135 years ago.
C. The International Red Cross started ago 135 years over.
D. The International Red Cross started over 135 years ago.
Question 27: our School’s/recently/ with Manchester/played a friendly/ Sport Club/ football match
A. Sport Club Our School’s recently with Manchester played a friendly football match.
B. Sport Club Our School’s recently played a friendly football match with Manchester.
C. Our School’s Sport Club recently played a friendly football match with Manchester.
D. Our School’s Sport Club recently football match played a friendly with Manchester.
Question 28: polo/ a ball /is played/ water/ with/and people/in a team/ play it
A. Water polo is played with a ball and people play it in a team.
B. Water is played polo with a ball and people play it in a team.
C. Polo water is played with a ball and in a team people play it.
D. Water polo with a ball is played and people play it in a team.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following sentences.
Question 29: She asked Janet to repeat what she had said.
A. “Will you please repeat what Janet said?”, she asked.
B. “Please repeat what Janet had said.”, she asked.
C. “Please repeat what you say, Janet.”, she said.
D. “Please repeat what you said, Janet.” , she said
Question 30: Jenny denied breaking the window.
A. Jenny was determined not to break the window.
B. Jenny said that she hadn’t broken the window.
C. Jenny didn’t break the window.
D. Jenny refused to break the window.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
 	Queen Isabella of Spain was born on 22 April 1451. She helped Christopher Columbus and gave him ships and men to sail across the Atlantic Ocean. As a result, Columbus (31) the New World. However, all the ships and men cost less than two parties she gave!
Louis Braille invented a way for the blind to read. This great man was born on 4 January 1809. Another great (32) , Thomas Edison, liked reading books written in Braille more than books in normal print, even though he could see perfectly well.
The Norwegian explorer, Roald Amundsen, was born on 16 July 1872. Amundsen was the first man to reach the South Pole. When he set out from Norway, however, everyone thought that he was (33) his way to the North Pole!
Albert Einstein was born in Germany on 14 March 1879. He was one of the greatest
 (34) and the most intelligent men in the world. However, he failed the entrance examination for the Federal Polytechnic of Zurich (35) he was a young man!
Câu 31: 	A. discovered 	B. travelled 	C. sailed 	D. invented
Câu 32: 	A. worker 	 	B. sailor 	C. inventor 	D. teacher
Câu 33: 	A. on 	B. in 	C. for 	D. by
Câu 34: 	A. scientifically 	B. sciences 	C. scientists 	D. scientific
Câu 35: 	A. where 	B. when 	C. whom 	D. which
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following Questions from 36 to 42.
	In 776 B.C., the first Olympic Games were held at the foot of MountOlympusto honor the Greek’s chief god, Zeus. The warm climate for outdoor activities, the need for preparedness in war, and their lifestyle caused the Greeks to create competitive sports. Only the elite and military could participate at first, but later the games were opened to all free Greek males who had no criminal record. The Greeks emphasized physical fitness and strength in their education of youth. Therefore, contests in running, jumping, javelin throwing, boxing, and horse and chariot racing were held in individual cities, and the winners competed every four years at Mount Olympus. Winners were greatly honored by having olive wreaths placed on their heads and having poems sung about their deeds. Originally these contests were held as games of friendship and any wars in progress were halted to allow the games to take place. They also helped to strengthen bonds among competitors and the different cities presented.
The Greeks attached so much importance to the games that they calculated time in four-year cycles called “Olympiads”, dating from 776 B.C. . The contest coincided with religious festivities and constituted an all-out effort on the part of participants to please the gods. Any who disobeyed the rules were dismissed and seriously punished. These athletes brought shame not only to themselves but also to the cities they represented.
Question 36: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Winners placed olive wreaths on their own heads.
B. The games were held in Greek every four years.
C. Battles were interrupted to participate in the games.
D. Poems glorified the winners in songs.
Question 37: The word “elite” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. aristocracy                    B. brave                       C. intellectual              D. muscular
Question 38: Why were the Olympic Games held?
A. To stop wars.                                                   B. To honor Zeus.
C. To crown the best athletes.                              D. To sing songs about the athletes.
Question 39: Approximately how many years ago did these games originate?
A. 800 years.                     B. 1,200 years.            C. 2,300 years.            D. 2,800 years.
Question 40: What conclusion can we draw about the ancient Greeks?
A. They were pacifists.
B. They believed athletic events were important.
C. They were very simple.
D. They couldn’t count so they used “Olympiads” for dates.
Question 41: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Physical fitness was an integral part of the life of ancient Greeks.
B. The Greeks severely punished those who didn’t participate in physical fitness programs.
C. The Greeks had always encouraged everyone to participate in the games.
D. The Greeks had the games coincide with religious festivities so that they could go back to war
when the games were over.
Question 42: The word “deeds” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. accomplishments          B. ancestors                 C. documents              D. properties
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun’s rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice ofmaintaining a constant body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant’s gazelles. The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as   low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive buildup of heat does not begin until well into the day.
Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to rehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication. The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst.
Question 43: 1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Weather variations in the desert.                     B. Adaptations of desert animals.
C. Diseased of desert animals.                             D. Human use of desert animals.
Question 44: According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?
A. It helps them hide from predators.	
B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors.
C. It helps them see their young at night.
D. It keeps them cool at night.
Question 45: The word “maintaining”  is closest in meaning to _________.
A. measuring                     B. inheriting                C. preserving               D. delaying
Question 46: The author uses of Grant’s gazelle as an example of
A. an animal with a low average temperature
B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel
C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures
D. a desert animal with a constant body temperature
Question 47: When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower?
A. Just before sunrise                                           B. In the middle of the day
C. Just after sunset                                               D. Just after drinking
Question 48: The word “tolerate” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. endure                          B. replace                    C. compensate             D. reduce
Question 49: What causes water intoxication?
A. Drinking too much water very quickly.           B. Drinking polluted water.
C. Bacteria in water.                                             D. Lack of water.
Question 50: Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph?
A. To show how they use camels.
B. To contrast them to desert mammals.
C. To give instructions about desert survival.
D. To show how they have adapted to desert life.
The End