Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi thành phố Tiếng anh lớp 9 - Năm học 2018-2019

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Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi thành phố Tiếng anh lớp 9 - Năm học 2018-2019
	UBND THÀNH PHỐ X	KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THÀNH PHỐ
	SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO	LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC 20182019
	MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
	Thời gian: 150 phút	
Thí sinh làm bài vào đề thi này. Không sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì.
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mail: giangty81@gmail.com. 
link mp3 nghe thử:
https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B1YdnSvqmvMZRlRQaXljanZBNmMLIA- STENING TEST
Part 1. People are talking about exercise. What phrase completes each statement? Listen and write the correct letter. You will hear the conversations twice. (5 pts)
Your answers
1. Jim is lifting weights
______
A. to get some fresh air
2. George is walking
______
B. to lose weight
3. Phyllis is swimming
______
C. to reduce stress
4. Ted is playing tennis
______
D. to be strong and flexible
5. Brenda is doing yoga
______
E. to have a healthy heart
Part 2: 
Part 3: Listen and write no more than three words or number.
SHORT STORY COMPETITION
Entry details
Example: Cost of entry: £5
1. Lenghth of story: approximately __________________
2. Story must include a: __________________ ending.
3. Minimum age: _____________________
4. Last entry date: First of _____________________
5. Web address: www. _____________________.com
That’s the end of listening test.
WRITTEN TEST
PART ONE: PHONOLOGY
I. Choose the word whose bold part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group.
 Write your answer (A, B , C or D) in the space given on the right. (5 pts)
A. measure	B. decision	C. pleasant	D. pleasure	____________
A. laughed	B. influenced	C. refused	D. missed	____________
A. suitable	B. biscuit	C. guilty 	D. building	____________
A. collect	B. combine	C. connect	D. concert	____________
A. machine	B. stomach	C. champagne	D. parachute	____________
II. Pick out the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others in each group.
 Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the space given on the right. (5 pts)
A. collect	B. advise	C. practise	D. prepare	____________
A. community	B. possibility	C. identity	D. conditional	____________
A. secondary	B. certainty	C. convenient	D. attitude	____________
A. copy	B. pollute	C. rely	D. prefer	____________
A. intelligent	B. difficult	C. interesting	D. necessary	____________
PART TWO: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the correct word or phrase to complete each sentence. 
 Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the space given on the right. (10 pts)
We stayed in a hotel room with a very good _____ of the bay.
A. reception	B. sight	C. view	D. notice	____________
It didn’t take Mr Baker long to _____ to eating with chopsticks. 	
A. be use 	B. get used 	C. used 	D. getting used 	____________
On Sundays in England most shops were closed and _____ the theatres and cinemas.
A. so were	B. neither were	C. were too 	D. so weren't	____________
Travel is said to _____ our knowledge.
A. broaden	B. wide	C. enlarge 	D. lengthen	____________
I was in such a hurry that I left one of my bags _____.
A. out	B. aside	C. on 	D. behind	____________
Bill is the best swimmer in the club. He dreams of setting a new world _____ some day.
A. record	B. cup	C. medal	D. present	____________
Tom lost his case because it didn't have _____ with his name on.
A. a ticket	B. a label	C. a poster	D. an identification	____________
They _____ all day swimming and sunbathing on the beach.
A. passed 	B. used 	C. took 	D. spent	____________
We have been away from home for a long time. We usually feel _____ now.
A. sick	B. tired	C. homesick 	D. strange	____________
Be quiet! It’s rude to _____ people when they are speaking. 
A. interfere 	B. interrupt 	C. prevent 	D. introduce	____________
The doctor examined me and then wrote out a _____ for me to take to the chemist. 
A. paper 	B. recipe 	C. prescription 	D. ticket	____________
One condition of the job is that you must be _____ to work at weekends.
A. available 	B. capable	C. acceptable 	D. accessible	____________
The police _____ the criminal and then took him to prison.
A. chased	B. looked	C. hunted	D. captured	____________
The village seemed strangely familiar, ______ I’d never been there before. 
A. however 	B. in spite of 	C. although 	D. despite	____________
TV keeps us _____ of what is going on all over the world.
A. to inform	B. inform	C. informing 	D. informed	____________
Solar energy is considered one kind of _____ source of energy.
A. various	B. alternative 	C. replacing 	D. changing 	____________
The safe _____ of nuclear waste is a major international problem.
A. disposal	B. abandon	C. throw 	D. destruction	____________
When did the Socialist Republic of Viet Nam come into _____.
A. naming	B. being	C. existing 	D. knowing	____________
The salesman showed us _____ the washing machine.
A. for using	B. to work 	C. how to use	D. for the working of 	____________
My new glasses cost me _____ the last pair that I thought.
A. three times as much as	B. three times more than	____________
C. three times as many as	D. as much as three times 
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answers in the spaces given on the right. (10 pts)
When you are late for school, you should (apology) to your teacher.	____________________
He works for an (advertise) agency. 	____________________
They are good dancers. They danced (beauty). 	____________________
It is likely that there will be a serious power (short) this summer. 	____________________
She has to work very hard to (food) her large family. 	____________________
We had a (please) evening at Tom’s birthday party. We laughed a lot. 	____________________
We have received ten (apply) for the job over the last two days. 	____________________
Mary is a (live) little girl.	____________________
When is your (appoint) with the dentist? 	____________________
His father is a famous (history). 	____________________
III. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. 
 Write your answers in the spaces that follow. (10 pts)
He would give you the money if he (have) it, but I know he (not have) any.
The exam (not be) as difficult as they (think) at first.
The teacher asked those who (complete) their tests (turn) in their papers.
I think it’s time you (start) (study) for the exam.
At this time yesterday, I (sit) comfortably at home, (listen) to some music. 
I (see) a car accident while I (wait) for you on this corner yesterday.
They (prepare) the Christmas dinner at the moment. It (be) ready in 5 minutes.
I enjoy (eat) meals (cook) by my sister.
He hates (drink) beer. He’d prefer (have) some coca cola.
I didn't know how (get) to your house, so I stopped (ask) a passer-by.
1. ____________________ ____________________	6. ____________________ ____________________
2. ____________________ ____________________	7. ____________________ ____________________
3. ____________________ ____________________	8. ____________________ ____________________
4. ____________________ ____________________	9. ____________________ ____________________
5. ____________________ ____________________ 10. ____________________ ____________________
IV. Fill each gap in the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5 pts)
He often goes to work ___________ motorbike, but yesterday he went ___________ his friend's car.
___________ mistake, he put ___________ a black shoe and a brown shoe.
Mrs Smith is ___________ charge ___________ this class.
I’m very grateful ___________ you ___________ all your support.
He insisted on complaining ___________ the boss ___________ the bad manner of the salesgirl.
PART THREE: READING COMPREHENSION
I. Read the passage and choose the correct answer to each question. 
 Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the space given on the right. (5 pts)
Mark Twain was the pen name of Samuel Longhorn Clemens (1835 - 1910), the American famous humorist and the author of popular and outstanding autobiographical works, travel books, and novels. The first thirty-six years of Clemens' life gave him experiences - as a boy in a little town in Missouri, as a steamboat pilot, as a reporter on the far western frontier, and as a traveler abroad - which he thereafter used as materials for his best and most successful writings.
He was born on November 30th, 1835. Hannibal was the town of Clemens' boyhood, destined to figure importantly in several of his finest books. The steamboats which Clemens and his gang of boyhood friends watched wheeling past or docking at the wharf were endlessly fascinating. So, too, were the steamboat men and the townspeople, many of whom were prototypes of characters in Mark Twain's books. The river and the woods around the town were wonderful places for the boys to play. In the summer, Samuel ordinarily paid a vacation visit to the farm of his uncle John Quarles, near Florida. Some of his happiest and most vivid memories were to be of his play around Hannibal and of his visit to the farm.
The Adventure of Tom Sawyer (1876) was one of Twain's best books, certainly his best for juvenile audience. The setting was St. Petersburg. The characters were the grownups and the children of the town in the 1830s. The happy endings endear the book to children; the lifelike picture of the boy, Tom Sawyer, and his friends is enjoyed by many people, both young and old.
Mark Twain's real name was _____.	____________
 A. Tom Sawyer 	B. Petersburg 	C. Hannibal D. Samuel L. Clemens
He lived about _____ years ago. 	____________
 A. 25	B. 50	C. 100 D. 200
Twain's early life was _____.	____________
 A. quiet and scholarly	B. sad and difficult
 C. poor and miserable	D. active and adventurous
Twain based most of his successful writings on _____.	____________
 A. true-life experience	B. pure fantasy
 C. facts that he learnt from school 	D. facts that he got from his parents
Many people enjoy The Adventures of Tom Sawyer because of _____.	____________
 A. its mystery 	 	B. all are correct
 C. its thrill	 	D. its happy endings and the lifelike picture of the characters
II. Fill each blank in the following passage with ONE suitable word. 
 Write your answers in the spaces that follow. (10 pts)
I am learning English because I am studying law and when I finish my course I (1) like to work for a big company, or possibly, I will continue my (2) in Britain or in the U.S.A. To do (3) of these things, it is important to reach a certain (4) of English. Another reason is (5) I want to communicate with foreign people because nowadays countries are becoming closer and closer. You need to be (6) to speak at least a foreign language if you want to travel (7) any problems.
My sister, who lives in England, says that life is very different there and the weather is not so good. Later this year I am going to visit England and stay with her for two months. I hope to (8) my level of English. I am certainly looking (9) to spending the summer in England. After studying at college for six weeks I will be going on holiday with my sister. We plan to hire a car and visit the south west of the country, (10), I have heard, is very attractive with lovely countryside.
1. ___________________	6. ___________________
2. ___________________	7. ___________________
3. ___________________	8. ___________________
4. ___________________	9. ___________________
5. ___________________	 10. ___________________
III. Match each sentence on the left with a suitable one on the right. Write letter a, b, c, ... in the numbered       spaces given to indicate your answer. (5 pts)
Would you like to come to the cinema with us?	a. How about going to the cinema?
Which of these would you like?	b. It's Johnson.
What shall we do this evening?	c. Congratulations!
Do you want any help?	d. No, thanks. It's all right.
I’m sorry. I can't remember your surname.	e. Not at all.
I've passed my driving test.	f. I'm afraid I can't.
You come from Venezuela, don't you?	g. No, I don't like it.
It's very kind of you to help me.	h. The green one please.
My brother had an accident yesterday.	i. I’m very sorry to hear that.
Is it going to rain tonight?	j. I hope not.
k. Yes, that's right.
	1 __________	2 __________	3 __________	4 __________	 5 __________
6 __________	7 __________	8 __________	9 __________	10 __________
IV. Read the passage and choose the correct word for each blank. 
 Write your answer (A, B, C, or D) in the space given on the right. (5 pts)
Medical science has made enormous advances in the 20h century. Most of the great “killer” diseases have been (1), and almost everyday a new drug appears on the market. But the medical profession is (2) a crisis of confidence. Surveys (3) that less than 40% of people really trust their family doctors. People are (4) away from conventional medicine to look for alternative (5) of treatment.
The main reason for this is that conventional medicine has (6) to satisfy the needs of the (7) of people. In spite of the apparent progress made by medical science, we are actually less (8) than our parents or grandparents. Medical students are taught that diseases are (9) by germs, viruses and toxins. Therefore treatment must (10) on attacking these things. 
A. won	B. defeated	C. erased	D. broken	____________
A. experiencing	B. holding	C. bearing	D. living	____________
A. indicate	B. lead	C. describe	D. point	____________
A. growing	B. taking	C. turning	D. coming	____________
A. ways	B. makes	C. forms	D. fashions	____________
A. missed	B. stopped	C. lost	D. failed	____________
A. lot	B. majority	C. most	D. largest	____________
A. healthy	B. nutritious	C. fine	D. wholesome	____________
A. caused	B. made	C. brought	D. involved	____________
A. aim	B. function	C. concentrate	D. find	____________
V. Point out one of the underlined parts in each sentence that is not correct and get it right. 
 Write A, B, C or D and your corrections in the spaces provided. Number 0 is an example. (10 pts)
She hardly never goes to the supermarket without buying some bread and cheese.
 A B C D
Hawaii, which is part of a group of islands, that has active volcanoes.
 A B C D
There is fewer rainfall in Vietnam this year than the previous one.
 A B C D
The shop assistant didn't know how much was the shirt so she had to ask the boss.
 A B C D
While they were away on holiday, they asked their neighbors look after the house.
 A B C D
There are less students present today than there were yesterday.
 A B C D
Sheep have been domesticated for over 5,000 years ago.
 A B C D
Approximately the third of Alaska's land area lies north of the Arctic Circle.
 A B C D
Bubbles of air in ice cream make it soft and enough smooth to eat.
 A B C D
Lake Tahoe's great deep of 1,600 feet prevents it from freezing in the winter.
 A B C D
Engineering is a profession who puts scientific knowledge to practical use.
 A B C D
0. __ A__ ___ hardly ever ______ 
1. ______ ____________________	6. _______ ____________________	
2. ______ ____________________	7. _______ ____________________	
3. ______ ____________________	8. _______ ____________________	
4. ______ ____________________	9. _______ ____________________	
5. ______ ____________________	 10._______ ____________________	
PART FOUR: WRITING
I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the original one. (10 pts)
Julia has been working for this company for 6 years.
Julia started	
I am really sorry I didn't invite her to the party.
I really wish	
It was such a cold day that we stayed indoors. 
The day 	
It was easy for him to get through the second round of the competition. 
He had 	
“Are you leaving for New York tomorrow?” he said to me. 
He asked	
They think the burglar got in though the bathroom window.
The burglar 	
If you travel more, you know more about the world.
The more 	
Someone stole my handbag on the bus yesterday.
I 	
He missed the bus, so he was late for school. 
If	
I have never seen a bigger dog before.
This is 	
II. Rewrite each sentences in such a way that it means the same as the original one, using the word at     the end of each sentence. Do not change this word in any way. (5 pts) 
If he doesn’t take care of those shoes, they won’t last long. LOOKS 
She has a friendly relationship with most people. GETS
In spite of the heavy rain, they did not cancel the match. ALTHOUGH
Alan prides himself on being the best tennis player in his school. PROUD
How heavy is this suitcase? WEIGHT
III. Use the suggested words and phrases to make complete sentences. (5 pts)
I / can swim / much / good / than / he.
This weather / not suitable / camping holiday.
Sue / not speak English / fluent / Sam. 
Why / you not come / meeting yesterday?
Jane / absent / class / yesterday / because / she / ill.
THE END
ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THÀNH PHỐ
MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 9 – BẢNG B-2010-2011
Tổng điểm: 100
PART ONE: PHONOLOGY
I. Choose the word whose bold part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group. (5 pts)
1 point for each correct answer
1. C	2. C	3. A	4. D	5. B
II. Pick out the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others in each group. (5 pts)
1 point for each correct answer
1. C	2. B	3. C	4. A	5. A
PART TWO: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the correct word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts) 
0.5 point for each correct answer
1. C	2. B	3. A	4. A	5. D	6. A	7. B	8. D	9. C	10. B
11. C	12. A	13. D	14. C	15. D	16. B	17. A	18. B	19. C	20. A
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10 pts) 
1 point for each correct answer
1. APOLOGIZE	 3. BEAUTIFULLY	 5. FEED	 7. APPLICATIONS 9. APPOINTMENT
2. ADVERTISING 4. SHORTAGE	 6. PLEASANT 8. LIVELY	 10. HISTORIAN
III. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (10 pts)
0.5 point for each correct verb
1. had – doesn’t have	6. saw – was waiting
2. was not – had thought	7. are preparing – will be
3. had completed – to turn	8. eating – cooked
4. started – studying	9. drinking – to have
5. was sitting – listening	10. to get – to ask
IV. Fill each gap in the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5 pts)
0.5 point for each correct preposition
1. BY - IN	 2. BY – ON 	 3. IN – OF	 4. TO – FOR 	5. TO - ABOUT
PART THREE: READING COMPREHENSION
I. Read the passage and choose the correct answer to each question. (5 pts)
1 point for each correct answer
1. D	2. C	3. B	4. A	5. D
II. Fill each blank in the following passage with ONE suitable word. (10 pts)
1 point for each correct answer
would 	6. able
study	7. without
all	8. improve
level	9. forward
that	10. which
III. Match each sentence on the left with a suitable one on the right. (5 pts)
0.5 point for each correct answer
1. f	2. h	3. a	4. d	5. b	6. c	7. k	8. e	9. i	10. j
IV. Read the passage and choose the correct word for each blank. (5 pts)
0.5 point for each correct answer
1. B	2. A	3. A	4. C	5. A	6. D	7. B	8. C	9. D	10. C
V. Point out one of the underlined parts in each sentence that is not correct and get it right. (10 pts)
1 point for each correct answer
1. A	hardly ever	6. D	years
2. B	less	7. A	a third
3. C	the shirt was	8. C	smooth enough
4. D	to look after	9. A	depth
5. A	Of	10. B	which/that
PART FOUR: WRITING
I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the original one. (10 pts)
1 point for each correct sentence
Julia started working for this company 6 years ago.
I really wish I had invited her to the party.
The day was so cold that we stayed indoors.
He had no difficulty in getting through the second round of the competition.
He asked (me) if/ whether I was leaving for New York the following day/ the next day/ the 

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