Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 - Đề số 1 - Năm học 2013-2014 - Sở GD & ĐT Ninh Bình (Có đáp án)

ĐỀ SỐ 1
ĐỀ THI HSG TỈNH – TIẾNG ANH 9
Năm học: 2013 – 2014
Thời gian: 155 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Sở GD&ĐT Thanh Hóa
Part A: PHONETICS (5 pts)
I- Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest of the group. (2 pts)
1. A. ploughed	B. published	C. ordered	D. prayed
2. A. closure	B. pleasant	C. decision	D. pleasure
II- Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest of the group. (3 pts)
3. A. career	B. avoid	C. manage	D. advise
4. A. official	B. literacy	C. inventory	D. stationery
5. A. diversity	B. severe	C. education	D. courageous
Part B: LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
I- Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
6. The hotel has been built on the ............. of the lake.
border	B. boundary	C. edge	D. front
7. John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” – Anna: “.............!”
Better luck next time	B. So poor	
C. Congratulations	D. That was nice of you.
8. She used to ............. her living by delivering vegetables to local hotels.
A. have 	B. win 	C. earn 	D. get
9. Although it was raining heavily, .............
he went out without a raincoat.
B. 	but he went out without a raincoat.
C. so he went out without a raincoat.
however he went out without a raincoat.
10. The house was .............building.
 A. a stone nice old	B. a nice old stone	C. a nice stone old	D. an old nice stone
11. Do you .............my turning the television on now?
 A. object	B. disapprove	C. want	D. mind
12. Last year, Matt earned.............his brother.
 A. twice as much as	B. twice as many as	
 C. twice more than	D. twice as more as
13. You don't have to decide now, you can............. .
 A. put it aside 	B. call it off 	C. tear it up 	D. think it over
14. Jenny and her sister are so .................. They could almost be twins.
 A. likeness	B. alike	C. like	D. the same
15. They hardly believe him and .....................
 A. so do I	B. neither do I	C. I do, too	D. I believe him
II- Use the verbs in brackets in the correct tense or form. (10 pts)
16-17. Jack (be) ................... ready in a moment. He (just finish) ................... his breakfast.
18. None of the people (invite) ................... to the party could come.
19-20. I was terribly disappointed (discover) ................... that he (lie) ...................	to me.
21-22. Nothing (give) ................... to you if you (not study) ................... hard.
23. We (tell) ...................not to go out at night recently.
24-25. There is smoke and I smell something (burn) ................... . There (be) ................... a fire nearby.
III- Supply the correct form of the word in capital letters. (10 pts)
26. We must learn about keeping our environment (POLLUTE) ............... .
27. It is also easy to save energy, which also reduces (HOUSE) .............. bills. 
28-29. You needn't go on a diet; but you have to eat (SENSE) .............. and you mustn’t (EAT) .............. .
30. Help is immediately sent to the (SURVIVE) .............. of the earthquake. 
31. My brother can repair electric (APPLY) .............. very well.	
32. (ENVIRONMENT) .............. are doing their best to save the species from dying out. 
33. These (INNOVATE) .............. will conserve the earth’s resources.	
34. The President’s New Year speech is going to be broadcast (NATION).............. .
35. Daily newspapers often have sections for news, sports, arts, and (CLASS) .............. advertising.
Part C: READING (25 pts)
Fill in each of the blanks with one suitable word. (10 pts)
Every year, eight million children across the United States spend some time at a summer camp. For more than a century, children have enjoyed both learning new skills and (36..........) part in a variety of activities in a friendly environment.
There are 10,000 camps across the country, which are designed to look (37. .......) youngsters from the age of 6 to 18. The camps, (38. ........) anything from 1 to 8 weeks, are often situated in beautiful lakeside areas and there is a wide range of (39..........) to suit every pocket. The children typically do outdoor (40. .......), including some challenging sports like climbing, or indoor activities such as drama, music or poetry. (41. .........) the camps are not luxurious, the wooden cabins the young people sleep (42. .......) are	 comfortable. The timetable does not allow very much time for relaxing because the children are (43. .......) busy all the time. The camps are popular with the children and many come away (44. .........) of enthusiasm. In the words of one former camper, 'I made a lot of friends, (45...........) never on my own, and became a lot more self-confident.'
II- Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage. (10 pts)
The computer is undoubtedly one of the most (46) ....................... and important inventions of the twentieth century. Boring or time-consuming jobs which, in the past, would have been (47)...................... by hundreds of workers can now be done by one small computer. However, the (48)......................... of the computer has not been entirely problem-free. Many people feel that we are already too (49)..........................on computers. They think that computers themselves are (50)........................... too powerful, and that people are no longer in control of them.
One of the problems with a computer is that, like any other machines, it can (51).......................... If a computer is (52)........................., the information it is storing can be lost. If a computer program has a(n) (53)......................... in it, the computer’s calculation can be seriously (54)........................... A faulty program in a hospital or police computer could (55)...........................terrible mistakes.
46. A. shocking	B. amazing	C. astonishing	D. surprising
47. A. done out	B. made out	C. carried out	D. figured out
48. A. usage	B. experiment	C. introduction	D. operation
49. A. dependent	B. based	C. influenced	D. carried
50. A. becoming	B. getting	C. running	D. turning
51. A. break up	B. break down	C. break into	D. break out
52. A. changed	B. modified	C. contaminated	D. damaged
53. A. foul	B. abnormality	C. wrongdoing	D. error
54. A. devalued	B. affected	C. fooled	D. broken
55. A. do	B. produce	C. find	D. cause
III- Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer (5 pts)
Many British people don’t think about clothes very much. They just like to be comfortable. When they go out to enjoy themselves, they can wear almost anything. At theaters, cinemas and concerts you can put on what you like from elegant suits and dresses to jeans and sweaters. Anything goes, as long as you look clean and tidy.
But in Britain, as well as the United States, men in offices usually wear suits and ties, and women wear dresses or skirts (not trousers). Doctors, lawyers and business people wear quite formal clothes. And in some hotels and restaurants men have to wear ties and women wear smart dresses.
In many years, Americans are more relaxed than British people, but they are more careful with their clothes. At home or on holiday, most Americans wear informal or sporty clothes. But when they go out in the evening, they like to look elegant. In good hotels and restaurants, men have to wear jackets and ties, and women wear pretty clothes and smart hairstyles.
It is difficult to say exactly what people wear informal or formal in Britain and the United States because everyone is different. If you are not sure what to wear, watch what other people do and do the same. You’ll feel more relaxed if you don’t look too different from everyone else.
56. Many British people wear freely when they ........................
 A. attend meetings	B. attend lectures	
 C. spend their spare time 	D. meet their friends
57. Who doesn’t usually wear suits and ties?
 A. Lawyers	B. Doctors	C. Drivers	D. Secretaries
58. If you visit an American friend at home in the evening, you may find that your friend wears.............................
 A. pretty clothes	B. informal clothes	C. formal clothes	D. dirty clothes
59. If you are in a foreign country, the best way the writer suggests to you is to wear..................
 A. strange clothes	B. as the people there do	
 C. your native clothes 	D. pretty clothes
60. What do you think the passage is mainly about?
A. Recent dressing habit in Great Britain and the United States.
B. The reason why informal clothing is popular in Britain and the US.
C. When we should wear in a formal way. 
D. Where we should wear in a formal way.
Part D: WRITING (20 pts)
I- Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed above it. (10 pts)
61. They bought me two laptops, but neither worked satisfactorily.
 àThey bought..................................................................................
62. Jane’s career as a television presenter began five years ago. 
àJane has....
63. I’m quite happy to look after the baby for you.
à I don’t..........................................................................
64. The flight to Paris lasted 3 hours.
à It took....
65. People say that he sold his house to pay the debt.
	à He is ......................................................................
66. The passengers don’t realize how lucky they have been.
à Little..................................................................................
67. You ought to fasten your seatbelt before driving away.
à You shouldn’t ................................................................................
68. His working too much led to his illness.
à If he....
69. If someone understands this book, they are cleverer than I am. 
à Anyone who..
70. “Would you like to go to the concert with me tonight?” Peter said to Ann.
à Peter invited.......
II- Write a paragraph of 100 - 120 words about the thing you like to do most in your free time. (10 pts)
------- THE END ------
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THANH HÓA
HD CHẤM CHÍNH THỨC
KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH
Năm học: 2013-2014
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
Lớp 9 THCS 
Ngày thi: 21 tháng 3 năm 2014
(Hướng dẫn gồm 02 trang)
A- ĐÁP ÁN:
Part A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1B
2B
3C
4A
5C
Part B: LEXICAL & GRAMMAR (30 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
I. 
6C
7A
8C
9A
10B
11D
12A
13D
14B
15B
II.
16. will be
17. is just finishing
18. invited
19. to discover
20. had lied / had been lying
21. will be given
22. do not study
23. have been told
24. burning
25. must be
III. 
26. unpolluted
27. household
28. sensibly
29. overeat
30. survivors
31. appliances
32. Environmentalists
33. innovations
34. nationwide
35. classified
Part C: READING (25 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
I. 
36. taking
37. after
38. lasting
39. prices
40. activities
41. Although / Though / While / Whereas
42. in
43. kept
44. full
45. was
II.
46B
47C
48C
49A
50A
51B
52D
53D
54B
55D
III.
56C
57C
58B
59B
60A
Part D: WRITING (20 điểm) 
I. (10 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
61. They bought me two laptops, but neither of which worked satisfactorily.
62. Jane has been a television presenter for five years.
 Jane has worked as a television presenter for five years.
 Jane has been working as a television presenter for five years.
63. I don’t mind looking after the baby for you.
64. It took 3 hours to fly to Paris.
65. He is said to have sold his house to pay the debt.
66. Little do the passengers realize how lucky they have been.
67. You shouldn’t drive away without fastening your seatbelt.
68. If he had not worked too/so much, he would not have been ill.
69. Anyone who understands this book is cleverer than I am.
70. Peter invited Ann to go to the concert with him that night.
II. 10 điểm
	Marking criteria: 
	- Task completion – 4 điểm: 
Tùy mức độ hoàn thành các yêu cầu, giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm.
	- Grammatical accuracy and spelling – 3 điểm: 
 Bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và dưới 4 lỗi ngữ pháp được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 5 lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không quá 3 điểm).
- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm: 
Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 điểm.
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
- Tổng điểm toàn bài : 80 điểm
- Thang điểm: 20
	 Tổng số điểm các câu làm đúng
 Điểm bài thi = 
 4
- Điểm bài thi được làm tròn đến 0,25