Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 - Năm học 2015-2016 - Sở GD & ĐT Thanh Hóa (Có đáp án)

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Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 - Năm học 2015-2016 - Sở GD & ĐT Thanh Hóa (Có đáp án)
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THANH HÓA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học: 2015-2016
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
Lớp 12-THPT 
Ngày thi: 06 tháng 12 năm 2015
Thời gian : 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Họ tên thí sinh: ......................................................	Phòng thi số:..........	Số báo danh:.............
PART A: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (2 pts)
1. A. wild	B. driven	C. alive	 D. sign
2. A. booked	B. wicked	C. checked	 D.ticked
Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. (3 pts) 
3.	A. solidity	B. supervisor	C. perversity	D. impudence
4.	A. birthmark	B. anthem	C. guidance	D. immense
5.	A. applicant	B. sulphuric	C. odourless	D. logical
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (45 pts)
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (15 pts)
6. Although they had only been invited for lunch, they until supper time.
A. stayed on	B. stayed out	 	C. stayed up	 	D. stayed I 
7. It turn out that we rushed to the airport as the plan was delayed by several hours.
A. hadn’t	B. should have	C. needn’t have	D. mustn’t
8. It was difficult to guess what herto the news would be.
A. feelings	B. reaction	C. capital	D. opinion
9. . My new glasses cost me _______ the last pair I bought last month.
A. more than three times	 C. more three times than B. three times as much as D. as much three times as
10.When he returned home , he found the door 
A. unlocking	B. unlocked	C. to be unlocked	D. have unlocked
11. I wish you’d do the accounts. I don’t have ________ for numbers.
	A. a head	B. a mind	C. the heart	D. the nerve
12.They go to the seaside.they should be disturbed bythe noise of the city. 
A. in order that	B. so that	C.for 	D. lest
13”.Would you mind dancing with me ?” “ no”
He invited me to dance with him but..
A.I didn’t 	B. I said I didn’t	C.I refused	D. I accepted
14. _________ handball is fast becoming ________ popular sport worldwide.
A. The/ the	B. Φ/ a	C. A/ Φ	D. Φ/ the
15. 8. _______ of all modern domestic poultry is the red jungle fowl is widely believed.
 A. The ancestor	B. The ancestor is	C. How the ancestor	 D. That the ancestor
16. But for their help , we_________ successful.
A. would have been 	B. would not have been	C. wouldn’t have	D.wouldn’t be
17.Only in extremely dangerous situations.stopped. 
A. will be the printing presses	B. that the printing presses will be
C. the printing presses will be 	D. will the printing presses be 
18. John: This grammar test is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester!
 Mary: _____ but I think it’s quite easy.
	A. I couldn’t agree more	B. I understand what you’re saying
	C. You’re wrong	D. I don’t see in that way
19. ..receipt of your instructions , I immediately sent a telex message to Algeria.
A. on	B. in	C. by	D. with
20. He earned his living byold painting. 
A. reviving	B. restoring	C. reforming	D. replenishing
Question II: The following passage contains 10 mistakes. Find and correct them (10 pts) 
 Children who tell pop music does not interfere with their homework receive support today, with the discovery that pay attention to visual stimuli and sounds requires completely different brain pathways which can operate at the same time with your appreciation of either being damaged. Researchers have founded that listening to car stereos does not create much interference when you are driving. Similarly, pop music should not interfere to children’s homework. The affect of pop music on their performance at it is far outweigh by other factors, such as how happy they are to be doing it. These findings could be applied for the design of places which people have to take in large amounts of information very quickly. They could, for example, be relevantly to the layout of pilot cockpits on aircraft.
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Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
31. I don’t believe it! It’s three in the morning and that party still(not finish).
32. Two miles ...(be) ... enough for her to go jogging every morning
33. Don’t call him at 2.30 p.m. He ( interview)................ job applicants at that time
34.I didn’t do the test well. I .................(prepare) it very carefully at home
35. Our car broke down. But for that, we. (to be) in time
36. It is imperative that the letter (send) at once
37. I don’t mind her (appoint) above me
38. When I see my brother again, he (finish) all his exams
39. My father would rather that we ..(not leave) yesterday
40. Jane’s train .(arrive) tomorrow morning at 7.00 so we will meet him at the station
Question IV: Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
41. He is unhappy because of his ________. (deaf)
42. The ________ of the swamps will destroy the mosquitoes’ breeding places. (drain)
43. He has made a great _________to the development of the country. (contribute)
44. We will hire new staff when the _____________arises. (necessary)
45. His repeated __________ from school is unacceptable. (absent)
46. The teacher’s words are a great ___________ to him. (encourage)
47. They are very __________ of one another. (support)
48. Her interests are very __________. (diversity)
49. I can’t stand his __________. (rude)
50. The holiday was beyond all _________. (expect)
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10PS)
I. Choose the one option A, B, C or D that best fits each of the numbered blank.
Face-to-face conversation is a two-way process: You speak to me. I rely to you and so on. Two-way (51) ........... depends on having a coding system that is understood by both (52) ............. and receiver, and an agreed convention about (53) ............ the beginning and end of the (54) ........ . In speech, the coding system is the language like English or Spanish; the convention that one person speaks at a time may seem too obvious to (55) ........... . In fact, the (56) ............... that people use in conversations and meetings are often non-verbal. For example, lowering the pitch of the voice may mean the end of a sentence: a sharp intake of breath may signal the desire to (57) .............. catching the chairman’s (58) .............. may indicate the desire to speak in a formal setting like a (59) ............. a clenched fist may indicate anger. When these (60) ............ signals are not possible, more formal signals may be needed.
51. A. communication	B. exchange	C. interchange	D. correspondence
52. A. transmitter	B. messenger	C. sender	D. announcer 
53. A. signaling	B. symbolizing	C. signing	D. showing
54. A. idea	B. theme	C. topic	D. message
55. A. notice	B. mention	C. recognize	D. judge
56. A. signs	B. signals	C. symptoms	D. symbols
57. A. interfere	B. interchange	C. interrupt	D. intercept
58. A. elbow	B. shoulder	C. hand	D. eye
59. A. debate	B. chat	C. lecture	D. broadcast
60. A. auditory	B. visual	C. verbal	D. sensory
Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts)
MTV stands for Music Television. It's a television (61).................. dedicated to pop music. It was (62)................ on 1st August 1981 in the United States. Because of MTV's instant success in the US, the company expanded into other areas. MTV Europe (63)............... operating on 1st August 1987. MTV Europe(64) .................. 24 hours a day from its London studios. It can be seen in 33 countries and reaches an estimated audience of 110 million viewers.
	People of 19 different nationalities work at London headquarters, and they try to offer a mixture of music from all over Europe. The channel broadcasts in (65)................... but Germany provides the biggest number of viewers. Currently, one fifth of the (66)................ is by German artists.
	Most of TV output is video and concerts, but there is also a programme (67).................. Unplugged, where major artists play (68) ...................... and acoustic in front of a small studio audience.
	In addition to music, the channel's programmes (69)..................... with news, movie information and comedy. MTV has also broadcast special report (70)................... racism, immigration and unemployed teenagers.	
Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts)
As Christmas evolved in the United States, new customs were adopted and many old ones were reworked. The legend of Santa Claus, for example, had origins in Europe and was brought by Dutch settlers to New York in the early 18th century. Traditionally, Santa Claus - from the Dutch Sinter Klaas - was depicted as a tall, dignified, religious figure riding a white horse through the air. Known as Saint Nicholas in Germany, he was usually accompanied by Black Peter, an elf who punished disobedient children. In North America he eventually developed into a fat, jolly old gentleman who had neither the religious attributes of Saint Nicholas nor the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter.
Santa’s transformation began in 1823, when a New York newspaper published the poem A Visit from Saint Nicholas, which Clement Clark Moore had written to amuse his daughter. The poem introduced many Americans to the story of a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a reindeer-drawn sleigh. Portraits and drawings of Santa Claus by American illustrator Thomas Nast further strengthened the legend during the second half of the 19th century. Living at the North Pole and assisted by elves, the modern Santa produced and delivered toys to all good children. By the late 19th century he had become such a prominent figure of American folklore that in 1897, when Virginia O’Hanlon wrote to the New York Sun newspaper asking if Santa was real, she received a direct answer: “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus”.
71. Who brought the legend of Santa Claus to the USA according to the passage?
A. Sinter Klaas
B. Saint Nicholas
C. A German
D. Dutch settlers
72. Santa Claus was traditionally described as a ..........
A. tall man who could walk through the air.	 
B. fat, jolly, old man.
C. religious figure. 
D. fat man riding a white horse.
73. Santa Claus in North America was depicted as ...
 A. a man with the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter.
 B. a good old man with less religious character.
 C. one with religious attributes of Saint Nicholas.
 D. a jolly man on horseback.
74. Who was Black Peter?
A. an elf accompanying Saint Nicholas.
C. one of the disobedient children.
B. an elf who rode a white horse.
D. a popular traditional figure.
75. What word is closest in meaning to “attributes”?
A. symbols of a person
B. natural qualities
 C. effects
 D. outer appearance
76. Where did the legend of Santa Claus come from?
 A. the North Pole
 B. Europe
 C. North America
 D. the City of New York
77. 1823 was mentioned as a year when ...
A. Clement Clark Moore wrote his first poem.
B. Clement Clark Moore’s poem made him popular.
C. Saint Nicholas visited New York.
D. the image of Santa Claus was transformed.
78. According to Clement Clark Moore’s poem,
A. Santa Claus had nothing different in appearance from the traditional one.
B. Santa Claus had wings and could fly.
C. Santa Claus liked poetry.
D. Santa Claus was a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a sleigh.
79. The answer “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus” is an illustration for the fact that...
A. the New York Sun was popular with children.
B. Santa Claus was a prominent figure at that time.
C. newspapers are unreliable.
D. Virginia O’Hanlon was a reader of the New York Sun.
80. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
 A.Santa Claus was an imaginary old man created by artists based on traditional figures.
 B. Living in the North Pole, Santa Claus visited children at Christmas.
 C. Santa Claus was a real figure living in northern America.
 D. Santa Claus was a story based on Saint Nicholas and Black Peter
PART D: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
81.Someone stole the old lady’s handbag.->The old lady was ........................................................................
82. A true story forms the basis of Mary’s new novel.->Mary’s new novel ...............................................................
83. Children learn alot about how to behave in a situation like this.->Only....................................................
84. Absolute secrecy was crucial to the success of the mission.->Without ......................................................
85. I write to him almost everyday.->Hardly......................................................................................... .................
Question II: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given word. (5 pts)
86.The job received over a hundred applications. (APPLIED)
87. Alan prides himself on his punctuality.	(TAKES)
88. The last Olympic Games were held in Seoul. (TOOK)
89. He doesn’t appreciate his wife.(GRANTED)
90. The whole team was in a happy mood. (SPIRITS)
Question III. Essay writing (10 pts): Writing a paragraph about the advantages or disadvantages of FACEBOOK in our life.
Write an essay ( about 150 to 200 words) to express your personal point of view. 
---------- THE END ------
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THANH HOÁ
HD CHẤM CHÍNH THỨC
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học: 2014-2015
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
Lớp 12 THPT
Ngày thi: 24/03/2015
Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 02 trang.
A- ĐÁP ÁN:
PART A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1.B
2.B
3.D
4.D
5.B
PART B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm) 
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (15 pts)
6A	7C	8B	9B	10B	11A	12D	13C	14B	15D	16B	17D	18B	19A	20B
Question II: The following passage contains 10 mistakes. Find and correct them (10 pts) (Questions 21-30)
(10pts; 0.5pt/ each correct answer + 0.5pt/ each correction)
line
mistake
correction
line
mistake
correction
Line 1
tell
say
Line 8
affect
effect
Line 2
pay
paying
Line 9
outweigh
outweighed
Line 5
with
without
Line 11
for
to
Line 6
founded
found
Line 11
which
where
Line 8
to
with
Line 13
relevantly
relevant
Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
1. hasn’t finished 6. be sent/ should be sent
2. is 	 7. having been appointed (being appointed)
3. will be interviewing 8. will have finished
4. should have prepared 9. hadn’t left
5. would have been 10. arrives
Question IV: Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts) 1.0 pt
1. deafness
 6. encouragement
2. drainage
7. supportive
3. contribution
8. diverse
4. necessity
9. rudeness
5. absence
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30pts)
I Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10 pts)
1. A
3. A
5. B
7. C
9. A
2. C
4. D
6. B
8. D
10. B
Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts)
61. channel	62. broadcast	
63. English	64. live	
65. born	66music	
67. deal 68. called	
69. on	70. began/ started
10. expectations
PART D: WRITING (20 pts)
71D	72C	73B	74A	75B	76B	77D	78D	79B	80A
Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
81.The old lady was robbed of her hand bag.
82. Mary’s new novel is based on a true story.
83. Only in a situation like this do children learn a lot about how to behave.
84. Without absolute secrecy this mission would not have succeeded/ been successful/ been a success/ would have failed.
85.Does a day pass without my writing to him.
Question II: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given word. (5 pts)
86.Over a hundred people applied for the job.
87.Alan takes (a) pride in his punctuality 
88. The last Olympic Games took place in Seoul 
89.He TAKES HIS WIFE FOR GRANTED
90. The whole team was in good spirits.
Question III. Essay: (10 điểm)
Marking criteria: 
+ Task completion (4 điểm)
Tuỳ theo khả năng hoàn thành về bố cục và những yêu cầu nội dung cho mỗi phần ( mở bài,thân bài,kết luận) giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm.
+ Grammatical accuracy and spelling 3 điểm: bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và từ ba lỗi ngữ pháp trở xuống được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 4 lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không quá 3 điểm).
- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm: 
Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 điểm.
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
Bài thi chấm theo thang điểm: 20
Điểm bài thi làm tròn đến 0,25
	Tổng số point thí sinh làm đúng
Điểm bài thi 	= ---------------------------------------
	 5

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