SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH Năm học 20152016 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) LƯU Ý: - Thí sinh làm bài vào phiếu trả lời. Đề thi không thu lại. - Đề thi gồm 4 trang. Tổng điểm: 100 - Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì. Thân gửi các bạn! Hiện tại mình BIÊN TẬP bộ tài liệu luyện nghe dành cho học sinh từ cấp độ A1- A2 – B1- B2. Giúp các bạn làm nguồn tài liệu dạy thêm, dạy bồi dưỡng HSG. Nếu các bạn có nhu cầu xin vui lòng liên hệ với mình 0963 226 296. Để nhận được nhiều bộ đề ÔN LUYỆN HSG miễn phí nhé mail: giangty81@gmail.com. CÁC BẠN VÀO LINK DƯỚI ĐÂY ĐỂ TẢI VỀ NHÉ https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B1YdnSvqmvMZV1d3am1YZ2lzcnM A- LISTENING TEST Part 1: Listen to the recording and circle the appropriate answer A, B or C. 0. Which baby is Michael? A. Without any hair B. Lovely hair C. Lovely hair, carrying a blanket 1. Which is Michael’s grandfther? A. He’s a dentist. B. He’s a journalist. C. He’s a farmer. 2. Where did Michael’s family live? A. on the top of the hill. B. near the forest. C. near the river. 3. Where did Michael’s family go on holiday? A. In the jungle. B. By the river. C. By the river with small birds 4. Which photo are they talking about? A. A birthday party. B. Christmas. C. New Year. 5. Which boy is Michael? A. Sleeping in the bed. B. Sleeping in the armchair. C. Sleeping in the kitchen. Part 2: Listen and write. There is ONE example. 0. Needs new ____Clothes______ Holiday: 1. Where? _________________ 2. Get there _________________ 3. Who with? _________________ 4. Sports: Swimming and _______________ 5. Homework: _________________ Part 3: David often forgets to bring things home. Where did he leave each thing? Listen and write a letter next to the name of the thing. There is ONE example. 0. Umbrella 0. ___F_ A. Lake 1. Camera 1. _______ B. Bus 2. Dictionary 2. _______ C. Museum 3. Torch 3. _______ D. Kitchen 4. Scarf 4. _______ E. Library 5. Diary 5. _______ F. Station G. Restaurant H. Hill B – WRITTEN TEST PART ONE: PHONOLOGY I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group. Write your answers A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (5 pts) A. pour B. flour C. scour D. sour A. define B. oxide C. alibi D. elite A. hatred B. relieved C. dogged D. sacred A. teethe B. wreath C. southern D. worthy A. dilemma B. salmon C. calve D. halve A. audible B. audience C. laundry D. draughty A. steak B. great C. creative D. break A. excursion B. further C. surgery D. surprise A. bomb B. tomb C. subscriber D. plumber A. creates B. motorbikes C. theatres D. tapes II. Choose the word whose main stress position is placed differently from that of the others in each group. Write your answers A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (5 pts) A. ingenuity B. analysis C. refugee D. editorial A. curiosity B. occupation C. Nepalese D. committee A. lemonade B. introduce C. understand D. atmosphere A. miraculous B. category C. zoology D. considerate A. mysterious B. competent C. temperate D. pregnancy A. religious B. environment C. inconvenient D. development A. computer B. composite C. company D. comfortable A. modernization B. urbanization C. mathematician D. influential A. dinosaur B. entertain C. signature D. crocodile A. medalist B. tournament C. gymnasium D. ceremony PART TWO: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR I. Choose the correct word or phrase to complete each sentence. Write your answers A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (10 pts) 1. Luckily I _____ a new pair of sunglasses as I found mine at the bottom of a bag. A. didn’t need to buy B. needed not to buy C. needn’t have bought D. hadn’t to buy 2. I’m sorry, but the dress you want is not _____ in red. A. possible B. economical C. suitable D. available 3. _____ rare artifacts were they that the museum decided to insure them. A. Such B. So C. Too D. Very 4. Scientists are predicting that the volcano might erupt so people have been _____ from the area. A. evacuated B. emigrated C. escaped D. exported 5. I always take my lucky _____ with me into an exam. A. sign B. item C. spell D. charm 6. The hotel room was _____ furnished with only a bed, a wardrobe, and an ancient armchair. A. thinly B. sparsely C. lightly D. completely 7. It’s very important that we _____ as soon as there’s any change in the patient’s condition. A. are notified B. being notified C. were notified D. be notified 8. If the service isn’t up to standard, I think you have _____ right to complain. A. all B. each C. every D. much 9. _____, a bat sends out a series of signals, which bounce off any object in its path. A. When in flying B. While it is flying C. When they are flying D. Once flying 10. Jack has decided to _____ the time he spends watching television. A. run out of B. cut down on C. go in for D. come up with 11. _____, the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties. A. By and large B. Altogether C. To a degree D. Virtually 12. She _____ to tell them where the money was hidden. A. objected B. rejected C. refused D. disagreed 13. _____ a scholarship, I entered the unknown territory of private education. A. To award B. To be awarded C. Having awarded D. Having been awarded 14. The old houses opposite are going to be _____. A. broken down B. knocked down C. put down D. taken down 15. The coastguard boarded the ship and found _____. A. four injured alive men B. alive four men injured C. four injured men alive D. injured four alive men 16. There’s no _____ between Gary and Mark, even though they are brothers. A. resemblance B. appearance C. correspondence D. reflection 17. “I have passed all of my examinations!” “_____!” A. Best wishes B. My dear C. Well done D. That’s very well 18. I’m _____ my brother is. A. nowhere like so ambitious B. nothing near as ambitious as C. nothing as ambitious than D. nowhere near as ambitious as 19. Jane changed her major from French to business _____. A. hoping she can easier get a job B. with hopes to be able easier to locate employment C. hoping to find a job more easily D. with the hope for being able to find better a job 20. - "_____" - “All right then, if you insist.” A. She did it right then. B. Are you sure you won’t come for a drink with us? C. What seems to be the trouble? D. Everything was all right at the party, wasn’t it? [[[ II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete each sentence. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts) This city has over half a million (inhabit). Many children create (imagine) friends to talk to. I’d like to make a (draw) from my bank account, please. I’m afraid I left the chicken in the oven a bit long so it’s a little (do). If we don't (economy) on electricity, there will be power cuts. People used to suffer from their life-time physical (normal). A good dictionary is (dispense) for learning a foreign language. His boss told him off because he had behaved (responsible). You must learn to (different) between politeness and real kindness. Playing a sport together will teach your children about fair play, (sport) and working with others. III. Fill each blank in the following sentences with a suitable preposition or adverb particle. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts) _____ answer to your question, no, I have never had any dealings _____ Mr. Partridge. 2. The dispute _____ territory _____ the two countries can lead to war. 3. I’m _____ the impression that this new CD will catch _____ very soon. 4. He gave me some money _____ payment _____ all my service. 5. The intercity highway is not _____ use now. It’s _____ major repair. 6. You were a bit hard _____ him _____ crashing your car - give him a second chance. 7. I don’t think we’re ever going to see eye _____ eye _____ this issue. 8. Don’t be surprised if you get _____ trouble for talking back _____ the teacher. 9. Damage _____ the building resulted _____ an unusually high wind. 10. Charles has good taste _____ music but he’s got no talent _____ figures. IV. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts) The little boy had a lot of trouble (convince) _____ everyone that he (see) _____ a mermaid. It (consider) _____ impolite in some cultures (eat) _____ with your left hand. He saves €500 a year. By the time he (retire) _____ he (save) _____ €20,000. Who was that girl you (talk) _____ to when I (pass) _____ you in the street? I (not get) _____ home until after midnight last night. Otherwise, I (return) _____ your call. Where (you/be) _____ all day? I (phone) _____ you dozens of times. (look) _____ at your CV, I (gather) _____ you used to live in Australia. Rebecca didn’t deserve (punish) _____ so severely, if you (ask) _____ me. The room (fill) _____ with boxes of different sizes which (deliver) _____ the day before. Once they (finish) _____ the extension to the factory, there (be) _____ room for them to take on a lot more workers. V. Identify one of the underlined parts in each sentence that is not correct and then get it right. Write your answers A, B, C, or D and your corrections on your answer sheet. Number 0 is an example. (10 pts) 0. I often go to school on bus. Answer: D →by A B C D 1. The harder he tried, the worst he danced before the large audience. A B C D 2. After Allan had searched for twenty minutes, he realized that his jacket had been laying on the table the entire time. A B C D 3. Linda has such many things to do that she has no time to go out. A B C D 4. Martha being chosen as the most outstanding student on her campus made her parents very happy. A B C D 5. John’s wisdom teeth were troubling him, so he went to a dental surgeon to see about having them pull. A B C D 6. I put my new book of zoology here on the desk a few minutes ago, but I cannot seem to find it. A B C D 7. Those of you who signed up for Dr. Daniel’s anthropology class should get their books as soon as possible. A B C D 8. Standing among so many strangers, the frightened child began to sob uncontrollable. A B C D 9. The Nobel prize winning candidate, accompanied by his wife and children, are staying in Sweden until after the presentation. A B C D 10. Sally must have called her sister last night, but she arrived home too late to call her. A B C D PART THREE: READING I. Read the passage below and choose the correct answer for each question. Write your answers A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (5 pts) Petroleum products, such as gasoline, kerosine, home heating oil, residual fuel oil, and lubricating oils, come from one source-crude oil found below the earth's surface, as well as under large bodies of water, from a few hundred feet below the surface to as deep as 25,000 feet into the earth's interior. Sometimes crude oil is secured by drilling a hole through the earth, but more dry holes are drilled than those producing oil. Pressure at the source or pumping forces crude oil to the surface. Crude oil wells flow at varying rates, from ten to thousands of barrels per hour. Petroleum products are always measured in forty-two-gallon barrels. Petroleum products vary greatly in physical appearance: thin, thick, transparent or opaque, but regardless, their chemical composition is made up of only two elements: carbon and hydrogen, which form compounds called hydrocarbons. Other chemical elements found in union with the hydrocarbons are few and are classified as impurities. Trace elements are also found, but these are of such minute quantities that they are disregarded. The combination of carbon and hydrogen forms many thousands of compounds which are possible because of the various positions and joinings of these two atoms in the hydrocarbon molecule. The various petroleum products are refined from the crude oil by heating and condensing the vapors. These products are the so-called light oils, such as gasoline, kerosine, and distillate oil. The residue remaining after the light oils are distilled is known as heavy or residual fuel oil and is used mostly for burning under boilers. Additional complicated refining processes rearrange the chemical structure of the hydrocarbons to produce other products, some of which are used to upgrade and increase the octane rating of various types of gasolines. 1. All of the following are true EXCEPT A. crude oil is found below land and water B. crude oil is always found a few hundred feet below the surface C. pumping and pressure force crude oil to the surface D. a variety of petroleum products is obtained from crude oil 2. The word "minute" in line 10 is closest in meaning to _____. A. instant B. huge C. insignificant D. timely 3. Many thousands of hydrocarbon compounds are possible because_____. A. the petroleum products vary greatly in physical appearance B. complicated refining processes rearrange the chemical structure C. the two atoms in the molecule assume many positions D. the pressure needed to force it to the surface causes molecular transformation 4. How is crude oil brought to the surface? A. expansion of the hydrocarbons B. pressure and pumping C. vacuum created in the drilling pipe D. expansion and contraction of the earth's surface 5. Which of the following is TRUE? A. Heating and condensation produce the various products. B. The various petroleum products are produced by filtration. C. Chemical separation is used to produce the various products. D. Mechanical means such as the centrifuge are used to produce the various products. II. Read the following passage carefully and fill each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts) Population growth affects almost (1) _____ aspect of everyday life. This is (2) _____ a continual growth in the earth’s population forces us to change the ways we use the land. For example, an expanding population needs more land (3) _____ housing, shops and industry. An expanding population also means that we need to grow (4) _____ food and build more hospitals, schools and roads. But the area of land available for human use is fixed. In fact, only about one third of the earth’s surface is land, and (5) _____ one third of that is suitable to live on. For example, there are large areas of the earth (6) _____ as deserts and polar icecaps that cannot at present support human life. Of course there are low population densities in some parts of the world, (7) _____ in most cases the land resources in such areas are already stretched (8) _____ the limit. One immediate answer to our population growth is to (9) _____ deserts and swamplands habitable. But the long-term (10) _____ is to stabilize the earth’s population. III. Read the passage below and choose the correct word to complete each numbered blank. Write your answers A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (5 pts) A POWERFUL INFLUENCE There can be no (1) _____ at all that the Internet has made a huge difference to our lives. Parents are worried that children spend too much time playing on the Internet, hardly (2) _____ doing anything else in their spare time. Naturally, parents are (3) _____ to find out why the Internet is so attractive, and they want to know if it can be harmful for their children. Should parents worry if their children are spending that much time (4) _____ their computers? Obviously, if children are bent over their computers for hours, (5) _____ in some game, instead of doing their homework, then something is wrong. Parents and children could decide how much use the child should (6) _____ of the Internet, and the child should give his or her (7) _____ that it won’t interfere with homework. If the child is not (8) _____ to this arrangement, the parents can take more drastic (9) _____. Dealing with a child’s use of the Internet is not much different from (10) _____ any other sort of bargain about behavior. A. doubt B. reason C. purpose D. motive A. always B. rarely C. never D. ever A. worried B. concerned C. curious D. hopeful A. staring at B. glancing at C. looking D. watching A. supposed B. occupied C. interested D. absorbed A. do B. have C. make D. create A. word B. promise C. vow D. claim A. holding B. sticking C. following D. accepting A. rules B. procedures C. regulations D. steps A. dealing B. negotiating C. having D. arranging PART FOUR: WRITING I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that its meaning is similar to that of the original one. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts) “Don’t worry, you’ll make a complete recovery,” the doctor told me. [ The doctor reassured It may seem strange but I like stale cake! [ Strange ! No one except Jake has ever beaten me at a game of chess. [ Jake is 4. I'd like to visit India more than any other country in the world. [ It’s India .......................................................... 5. I am on the tenth page of this letter I am writing. [ So far I 6. We suggested a lot of things, which were all rejected. [ Everything 7. Do you ever regret not going to university? [ Do you ever wish ? 8. Without this new diet, Henry would never have lost so much weight. [ Had 9. Prices have increased by 5% in the last year. [ There .............................................................. 10. Someone has suggested the resignation of the minister. [ It II. Rewrite each of the sentences below in such a way that its meaning is similar to that of the original one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change this word in any way. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (5 pts) I was strongly impressed by the performance of that singer. (made) [......................................................................... The rain was coming down in torrents. (cats) [ We get on very well with our next-door neighbors. (terms) [ Calling Jim is pointless, because his phone is out of order. (no) [ This matter is none of your business. (concern) [ III. Use the suggested sets of words and phrases to write complete sentences. You can make some changes if necessary. Write your answers on your answer sheet. ( 5 pts) Either / you / your brother / have / do / military service. [ We / sorry / inform / your service / no longer / need. [ She / take / payment / account / apply / job. [ you / fancy / go / somewhere else / complete change? [ ? He / catch / red-handed / have / no choice / confess. [ THE END KEY A- LISTENING TEST Part 1: 1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. B Part 2: 1. (on) (an/a) (beautiful) island 2. (by) plane 3. (her) cousins 4. volleyball 5. Geography Part 3: 1. H - Hill 2. E - Library 3. D - Kitchen 4. A- Lake 5. C - Museum B- WRITTEN TEST PART ONE: PHONOLOGY I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group (5 pts) 0.5 pt for each correct answer. 1. A 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. C II. Choose the word whose main stress position is placed differently from that of the others in each group (5 pts) 0.5 pt for each correct answer. 1. B 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. C PART TWO: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR I. Choose the correct word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts) 0.5 pt for each correct answer. 1. A 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. D 14. B 15. C 16. A 17. C 18. D 19. C 20. B II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the sentences. (10 pts) 1.0 pt for each correct word. 1. inh
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