Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 - Năm học 2015-2016 - Phòng GD & ĐT Tĩnh Gia (Có đáp án)

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN 
 TĨNH GIA Năm học 2015 - 2016
 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
 Môn: Tiếng Anh 9
 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi gồm 05 trang
A: PHONETICS
 I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others in each group. ( 5 pts) 
1. A. wished
B. realized
C. touched
D. passed
2. A books
B. shops	
C. units
D. bags	
3. A. communicate
B. tolerate
C. private
D. translate
4. A. cirle
B. coin
C. currency
D. conception
5. A. excited
B. excellent
C. except
D. exceed
II. Choose the word that has the stress differently from that of the other words. (5 pts)
6. A. dangerous
B. delicious
C. offensive
D. religious
7. A. entertainment
B. recreation
C. literature 
D. information
8. A. advertise
B. expression
C. typical
D. nominate
9. A. angry
B. hobby
C. garden
D. reside
10. A. Physics
B. guitar
C. divide 
D. invite
 B: Vocabulary and grammar 
I. Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. (10 pts)
11. He stopped working  the heavy rain.
A. in spite of
B. because of
C. despite 
D. although
12. I wish I..you with your homework, but I am busy now.
A. will help	
B.can help 
C. would help 
D. could help
13. The ring is only made of plastic so it’s quite ..
A. valuable	
B. invaluable	
C. worthless	
D. priceless
14. Last week we hadtrip to my home village in tinh Gia district.
 A. a three-day 
B.three-days 
C. the three-days 
D. a three-days 
15. Everyone can learn how to swim,  ?
A. can’t they
B. can’t he
C. can they
D. can he
16. Many women today prefer wearing modern clothing .......................traditional clothing.
A. with 
B. to 
C. from
D. on
17. Either Jane or Peter .....................going to the beach today.
A. is 
B. are 
C. was 
D. were
18. The baby’s getting..everyday.
A. more bigger	
B. biggest
C. bigger and bigger
D. more and more big
19. If I had met you last Sunday, I .. here today.
A. wouldn’t have been
B.wouldn’t be 
C. were not
D. am not
20. John wasn’t at work yerterday. He ........................
A. must have been ill	
B. must be ill.
C. must have ill	
D. must to be ill.
II. Complete the sentences using the correct form of the verbs in the brackets (10 pts)
21. Everyone who (have).the flu should stay in bed for some days.
22. Hello, Tim. The party last night was great. You should (come)
23. When you return next year, the children ( grow). .... much taller.
24. Please have my luggage (take).... to the airport tomorrow morning.
25. I (ring)....the bell three times when he answered the door.
26. I’m not used to (speak) .... to like that.
27. He has been sleeping since ten o’clock. It is time he (wake up)...
28. The doctor advised him (not eat)....too much sugar.
29. I remembered (give)...a lot of presents on my birthday.
30. Nothing ( do) ....about this problem for months
III. Choose the letter of the underlined part which is not correct. (5 pts)
31. The water and land around the chemical factory are serious polluted.
 A	 B	C	D
32. He has such much money that he doesn’t know what to do with it
 A B C D
33. I would rather live in the countryside than to live in the city. 
 A B C D
34. If I was Peter, I would take a short rest.
 A B C D
35. The British national anthem, calling “God save the Queen”, was a traditional song in 
 A B C D
the 18th century.
IV. Fill each blank with a suitable preposition. (10 pts)
36. She is not much interested in biology ..general.
37. He put .. a heavy coat and went out in the storm.
38. This book consists  five chapters.
39. My brother often helps me .. my homework.
40. Our neighbor will look .. the garden when we go on holiday
41. The Malaysian unit ...currency is the ringgit.
42. Nowadays, the Vietnamese women usually wear the Ao dai, especially.special occasions.
43. There is a big banyan treethe entrance to the village.
44. Who was responsible.preparing the party?
45. She is always fed up .. washing dishes after dinner.
V. Use the correct form of the words in brackets to complete sentences. (10 pts)
46. English and French are Canada’s ...languages. 
(OFFICE)
47. These clothes are attractive but entirely..
(PRACTISE)
48. Let me introduce you a.university. I think it’s really reliable.
(REPUTE)
49. Wegathered our things and ran to the bus stop.
(HURRY)
50. Theof the magazine has declined since last year. 
(POPULAR)
51. A good student must know how to study.
 (EFFECT)
52. Don't depend on him; he's a very .... person.
(RELY)
53. He has great.in God
(BELIEVE)
54. He is so sad because the film ended 
(HAPPY)
55. This dictionary is not so big but it is .
(INFORM)
VI. Reading
a. Complete the following passage by filling in each blank with the correct answer. Identify your choice by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
The Ao dai is the traditional dress of Vietnamese women. The exact origin of the Ao dai is still controversial.  In 1744, the Nguyen Dynasty required that (56) ....men and women should wear both pants and gown, though not until 1930 (57). the Ao dai took a (58) shape to what it is right now.
The Ao dai has experienced many modifications (59) its original version. Ao tu than, which had been worn by Vietnamese women centuries before the Ao dai evolved into the five-paneled dress which is (60) as the closest form to the Ao dai. 
Throughout the 20th century, there has been numerous changes in the (61) of the Ao dai. Although the Ao dai is no longer worn by men, nor do women on a daily basis, it is still the Vietnamese women’s favorite dress in traditional festivals or occasions (62). Tet, wedding or graduation. In some high schools and universities in Vietnam, the white ao dai is considered the school uniform for female students.
Nowadays, the Ao dai has been (63) ...................... all over the world. And Vietnamese women (64).live in foreign countries usually wear it like the (65) ........................ emotions of them about Viet Nam. 
56.
 57. 
A. many
A. then
B. among
B. after
C. both
C. before
D. much
D. that
58.
A. same
B. similar
C. like
D. unlike
59.
A. about
B. of
C. for
D. since
60.
61
A. looked
A. fashion
B. known
B. uniform
C. made
C. design	
D. seen
D. clothes
 62.
A. such as
B. alike
C. well as
D. as long as
63
A. unique
B. fashionable
C. popular
D. special
64
A. who
B.whom
C. whose
D. which
65
A. practical
B. free
C. confident
D. proud
b. Read the following passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D for each questions. (5 ps)
At the age of sixty-five, Laura Ingalls Wilder began writing a series of novels for young people based on her early experiences on the American frontier. Born in the state of Wiscosin in 1867, she and her family were rugged pioneers. Seeking better farm land, they went by covered wagon to Missouri in 1869, then on to Kansas the next year, returning to Wisconsin in 1871, and traveling on to Minnesota and Lowa before settling permanently in South Dakota in 1879. Because of this continuing moving, Wilder's early education took place sporadically in a succession of one-room schools. From age thirteen to sixteen she attended school more regularly although she never graduated.
At the age of eighteen, she married Almanzo James Wilder. They bought a small farm in the Ozarks, where they remained for the rest of their lives. Their only daughter, Rose, who had become a nationally known journalist, encouraged her mother to write. Serving as agent and editor, Rose negotiated with Harper's to publish her mother's first book, Little House on the Big Woods. Seven more books followed, each chronicling her early life on the plains. Written from the perspective of a child, they have remained popular with young readers from many nations. Twenty years after her death in 1957, more than 20 million copies had been sold, and they had been translated into fourteen languages. In 1974, a weekly television series, "Little House on the Prairie ", was produced based on the stories from the Wilder books.
66. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. American pioneer life
B. Children's literature
C. A weekly television series
D. Wilder' s career
 67. Laura Ingalls Wilder began writing novels
A. when she was a child on the frontier
B. right after she moved to the Ozarks
C. when she was a young mother
D. after her sixty-fifth birthday
68. The author mentions all of the following events in the life of Laura Ingalls Wilder EXCEPT	
A. She went west by covered wagon
B. She graduated from a one-room school
C. She married Almanzo Wilder
D. She had one daughter
69. Written from the perspective of a child, they have remained popular... THEY refers to 
A. the plains	
B. many nations
C. more books
D.young readers
70. Laura Ingalls Wilder died in
A. 1967
B. 1957
C. 1947
D. 1977
VII. Writing 
Complete the second sentence in such a way that it is almost the same meaning as the first (5 pts):
71. His success went beyond his expectation.
 => Never ...
72. The play is so popular that the theatre is likely to be full every night.
=> It is such ...
73. Keeping calm is the secret of passing your driving test .
=> As long as ..
74. “ Shall we go out for dinner?” he said to us.
=> He suggested ..
75. They spent more money, They had to work harder.
=> The more ...
 b. Use the suggested words and phrases to make complete sentences. (5 pts)
76. You/ not pass/ coming exam/ unless/ work/ hard.
=> ...
77. The book/ you/ read/ last night/ write/ Charles Dickens/.
=> ...
78. We/ want/ get a good seat/ so/ arrive/ the cinema/ early/ last night.
=> ...
79. If people/ stop/ use/ dynamite/ for/ fish/ lot/ sea creatures/ be/ good/ preserve.
=>...
80. I/ wait/ half an hour/ but she/ not come.
=> ...
VIII. It is said that living in the city is better than living in the countryside. Do you agree or disagree? Write an essay (of about 120 – 150 words) to express the reason why you agree or why not. (10 pts)
Thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi
Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN
Năm học 2015-2016
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh Lớp 9
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút
A: PHONETICS
 I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others in each group. (5 pts) 
1. B
2. D
3. C
4.A
5.B
II. Choose the word that has the stress differently from that of the other words. (2 pts)
6. A
7. C
8. B
9. D
10. A
B: Vocabulary and grammar 
I. Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. (10 pts) 
11. B
12.D
13. C 
14. A 
15. A 
16. B 
17.A 
18. C 
19. B 
20.A
II. Complete the sentences using the correct form of the verbs in the brackets (10 pts)
21. has
22. have come
23. will have grown
24. taken
25. had rung
26. being spoken
27. woke up
28. not to eat
29. being given
30. has been done
III. Choose the letter of the underlined part which is not correct. (5 pts)
31. D
32. B
33. D
34.A
35. B
IV. Fill each blank with a suitable preposition. (5 pts)
36. in
37. on
38.of
39. with
40. after
41. of
42. on
43. at
44. for
45.with
V. Use the correct form of the words in brackets to complete sentences. (10 pts)
46.official	
47. unpractical
 48.reputable
 49. hurriedly
50.popularity
 51. effectively
52. unreliable
53. belief
54. unhappily
55. informative
VI. Reading 
a. Complete the following passage by filling in each blank with the correct answer. Identify your choice by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
56. C 
57. D
58. B
59. D
60. B
61.C
62. A
63. C
64. A
65. D
b. Read the following passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D for each questions. (5 ps)
66. D
67. D
68. B
69. C
70. B
VII. Writing 
a. Complete the second sentence in such a way that it is almost the same meaning as the first (5 pts):
71. Never had he expected he was so successful.
 Never had he expected (his) such success.
72. It is such a popular play that the theatre is likely to be full every night.
73. As long as you keep calm, you will pass your driving test
74. He suggested going out for dinner.//He suggested that we should go out for dinner.// He suggested we should go out for dinner.// He suggested we go out for dinner. 
75. The more they spent money, the harder they had to work.
b. Use the suggested words and phrases to make complete sentences. (5 pts)
76. You will not pass your/ the coming exam unless you work hard.
77. The book (which/that) you read last night was written by Charles Dickens.
78. We wanted to get a good seat, so we arrived at the cinema early last night.
79. If people stop using dynamite for fish, a lot of sea creatures will be well preserved.
80. I have been waiting for her for half an hour but she hasn’t come (yet).
VIII. It is said that living in the city is better than living in the countryside. Do you agree or disagree? Write an essay (of about 120 – 150 words) to express the reason why you agree or why not. (10 pts)
1. Form: an argument essay (3 points)
 - Introduction: (Giving the point of view): - I agree/ I disagree that..
 - Body: (Series of arguments): - Firstly/ first of all, .
 - Secondly/ In addition to/ Moreover, Further more.. 
 - ..
 - finally,
- Conclusion: (Sum up the argument): - In conclusion/ In short/ In summary,
2. Content: (2 points)
 + should be clear, logical and creative with explanations
3. Language: (5 points)
	+ Appropriate vocabulary (1 point)
	+ Suitable connectors (1 point)
	+ Correct grammar (1 points)
	+ Punctuating/ Spelling (1 point)
 + Coherence and cohesion(1 point)
 số câu trả lời đúng + điểm bài viết luận
 Điểm bài thi =	 	 	 9 	
(Thang điểm 10)