Đề kiểm tra chọn đội tuyển học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 - Năm học 2011-2012 - Phòng GD & ĐT Ý Yên (Có đáp án)

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC - ĐÀO TẠO 
HUYỆN Ý YÊN
ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI
Năm học 2011-2012
Môn: TiÕng Anh Lớp 9
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Ngày thi 28,29/2/2012 - Đề bài này gồm 08 trang)
Chú ý: Thí sinh làm bài vào đề thi này.
Điểm bài thi
Bằng số: ..........................
Bằng chữ: ........................
Họ, tên và chữ ký 2 giám khảo
Giám khảo 1: .........................................
Giám khảo 2: .........................................
SỐ PHÁCH
(Do chủ tịch Hội đồng chấm thi ghi)
PART A. LISTENING: (3.0p)
Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe hiểu:
Bài nghe gồm 09 câu hỏi, thí sinh được nghe 2 lần, đĩa CD tự chạy 2 lần.
Hướng dẫn làm bài chi tiết cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe. 
I. Listen to a talk and circle A,B,C or D to indicate the correct answer. 
What is the main topic of the talk?
A. How to become young entrepreneurs.	B. How to meet rich, famous people.
C. How to become wealthy people.	D. How to have qualities of rich people.
	2.	Who is the audience?
	A. Young entrepreneurs.	B. University students.
	C. Rich businesspeople.	D. Famous millionaires.	
	3.	Which of the following is NOT true according to the talk?
	A. The rich have qualities that make them different.
	B. Not all the qualities that rich people have are good.
	C. Meanness is one quality people should have to get rich.
	D. Rich people’s appearance is very different from ours.
	4.	What did Matthew Freud do to get money when young?
	A. He helped his friends with their homework.B. He sold mice to his friends at school.
	C. He showed rich schoolfriends how to learn.D. He made friends with millionaires’children.
	5.	Which of the following is NOT a quality of the rich?
	A. Extravagance	B. Confidence	
 	C. Hard work	D. Ambition
	6.	Which of these people is mentioned as an example of a hard-working person?
	A. John Paul Getty	B. Bill Gates	
 	C. Rupert Murdoch	D. Anita Roddick
II. Listen to a conversation and fill in the numbered gaps in the table. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
TIM
JANE
Day of arrival
Sunday
(1) 
Subject
(2) 
(3) 
Number of books to read
(4) ...............
(5) 
Day of the first lecture
(6) ..
(7) 
First essay’s topic / title
(8) ..
(9) 
PART B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR: (7.0p)
I. Choose the best word or phrase to complete each of the following sentences. Circle A, B, C or D: (1.0p)
This is the palace _____ the king used to live in. 
A. where 	B. which 	C. that 	D. in which
Peter failed his English test. _____, he has to do it again.
A. However 	B. Therefore 	C. So 	D. So that
If there were no television, people ______ out more. 
A. would go 	B. will go 	C. can go 	D. have gone 
If you want to get good grade, you ______ hard. 
A. must study 	B. will study 	C. can study 	D. would study
David is tired ____ he stayed up late watching TV last night. 
A. for 	B. since 	C. when 	D. during
______ Jim came to the show late; he could see the main part of the show. 
A. In spite of 	B. Because of 	C. Despite 	D. Although
I feel sick. I wish I ______ so much cake. 
A. not ate 	B. didn’t eat 	C. hadn’t eaten 	D. wouldn’t have eaten
She came into the room while they _______ television. 
A. have watched 	B. watched 	C. were watching 	D. have been watching.
“How do you do?” “______”. 
A. I’m fine 	B. I do well 	C. How do you do? 	D. That’s all right
 _____ many times I tell him, he always forgets to pass on phone messages.
A. Wherever 	B. Whatever 	C. Whenever 	D. However
II. Choose the word that has the same meaning as the underlined one. Circle A, B, C or D (1.0p)
English is the most important language in the world of commerce.
A. finance 	B. business 	C. banking 	D. exchange
Good knowledge of English helps you gain a successful future.
A. fulfill 	B. retain 	C. perform 	D. acquire
His premature death at the age of 28 is a great loss.
A. too early 	B. abrupt 	C. very mysterious 	D. violent
Every family is advised to have two children at most.
A. instructed 	B. informed 	C. recommended 	D. counseled
Helen Keller, blind and deaf from an early age, developed her sense of smell so finely that she could identify friends by their personal odors.
A. classify 	B.communicate with 	C. describe 	D. recognize
III. Complete the numbered blanks in the passage with the correct form of the words in capital on the left. (1.0 pts) 
There can be very few people who have not read about the (1) _______________ of the rainforests, and (2) ________________ still would say that nothing should be done. However, the idea that this could be achieved by (3) ________________ developing countries is a highly dubious proposition. 
 It’s often suggested that the industrialized countries of the world have worked hard to limit population. To a certain (4) ________________ extent, there’s some (5) ________________ in this, and measures have been taken to stop the increase in CFCs and other ozone-destroying gases: some cars are fitted with catalytic converters, (6) ________________ is commonplace and lead-free petrol is widely (7) ________________. However the (8) ________________ that we in the West are doing something to combat pollution whereas the (9) ________________ world is not an oversimplification. We are continuing to pour billions of tons of (10) ________________ into the atmosphere every year.
DESTROY
FEW
PRESSURE
LIMIT
TRUE
RECYCLE
AVAIL
IMPLICATE
DEVELOP
POLLUTE
IV. Put the verbs into the correct forms. Write your answers in the spaces provided. (1.0 p) 
I (1. walk) _________________ along the deserted main street of a small seaside town in the north of England (2. look) _________________ for somewhere (3. make) _________________ a phone call. My car (4. break) _________________ down outside the town and I wanted to contact the A. A. The street (5. run) _________________ paralleled to the sea and (6. join) _________________ to it by a number of narrow side streets. Low grey clouds (7. drift) _________________ off across the sky and there was a cold damp wind (8. blow) _________________ off the sea which nearly threw me off my feet when I (9. cross) _________________ one of the side streets. It (10. rain) _________________for a long time.
V. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct form of one of the phrasal verbs below. Use each phrasal verb once only. Write your answer in the spaces provided. (0) is an example: (2.0p)
turn off	look for	look after	see off	cut off
succeed in 	look up	take over	come across
After trying an hour she finally succeeded in starting the car.
Don’t forget to ___________ _____ all the lights before going out.
If you don’t pay your electricity bill soon, you will be ___________ _____.
When the company was ___________ ______, the new bosses made a lot of people redundant.
If you’re not sure how to use a phrasal verb, _____________ it _______ in the dictionary.
I think they’ve gone to the airport to _____________ their boss _______.
When I was cleaning the attic yesterday, I ___________ _____ a skeleton.
I’ve lost my keys. Can you help me _____________ ____ them?
Could you please _____________ _____ my house and pets when I am away on holiday next month?
VI. Underline and correct the mistakes in the following paragraph. Each line has one mistake. Write the correct one in the numbered blanks. (0) is an example: (1.0p)
Egypt is the country that people usually associate of pyramids but there are pyramids in many others places around the world. One of these places are the island of Tenerife, which is in the Canary islands. There are six steps pyramids near the town of Guimar in the south of the island. Nevertheless, these pyramids, which are made from black volcanic stone, are very controversially. Many scientists believe the structures, which were only discovered fairly recently, are simply natural stone terraces and not a mysterious wonderful of ancient times. Thor Heyerdahl, the famous Norwegian researcher, whom spent the last years of his life on Tenerife, claimed the pyramids are, in fact, made by humans who had used building techniques that were similar with those used to build pyramids in Mexico, Peru and ancient Mesopotamia.
0. ____with___
1. ___________
2. ___________
3. ___________
4. ___________
5. ___________
6. ___________
7. ___________
8. ___________
9. ___________
10. __________
PART D. READING: (5.0p)
I. Look at each sign below and read the sentences next to it. Only one sentence is completely correct (but the others may be partly correct). Choose the best answers for questions 1-5. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (0) is an example: (0.5p)
NON-SMOKING COMPARTMENT
A. Come to my apartment.	B. Smoking is allowed in this compartment.
©. Do not smoke here.	D. There is smoke in this compartment.
CAFÉ ENTRANCE – PARKING FOR CUSTOMERS ONLY!!!
A. Employees of the café are allowed to put their cars here.
B. People using the café can park here, but nobody else can.
C. Nobody is allowed to park in front of the café.
D. People can park here if they pay a parking fee.
DO NOT CROSS HERE (USE SUBWAY) 
A. You can’t use this subway to cross the road.
B. There is no entrance to the subway on this side of the road.
C. If you want to cross the road, you must use the subway.
D. If you want to use the subway you must cross the road.
SHOP OPEN: 9.00-5.30 (EXCEPT SUNDAYS)
A. The shop opens at 9.00 every day.	B. The shop is only open on Sundays.
C. The shop opens at 5.30 on Sundays.	D. The shop is closed on Sundays.
PUBLIC PATH: NO CYCLING! 
A. You can walk on the path but you may not ride a bicycle.
B. Only members of the public can cycle on the path.
C. The path is closed except for cyclists.
D. People are allowed to walk and ride bicycles on this path.
PLEASE USE OTHER DOOR WHILE BUILDING WORK IS IN PROGRESS.
A. You can’t go into this building because it is being repaired.
B. You may not go through this door because building work is going on.
C. The other door has not been built yet.
D. Builders must deliver their materials at the door.
II. Read the passage and choose the best option to fill in each blank. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (0) is an example: (1.5p)
British families started going (0) ______ holiday to the seaside around the middle of the 19th century. The invention of the railways (1) ______ this possible. The first holidaymakers were quite rich and went for their health and education. The seaside was a place to be (2) ______ of illness, and doctors recommended bathing in the sea and drinking sea water. Also to (3) _____ their knowledge, families attended concerts and read books from the library.
At that time, ordinary working people had a very little time (4) _______ work. However, in 1871, the government (5) ______ for ‘Bank Holidays’- national holiday days. This (6) _____ people to have a day or two out, which (7) _______ gave them a (8) ______ for leisure and the seaside. At first, they went on day-trips, taking (9) ______ of special cheap tickets on the railways.
By the 1880s, rising incomes (10) ______ that many ordinary workers and their families could have a week’s holiday at the seaside. Rail fares were reduced and cheap hotels were built to (11) ______ them. Holidaymakers enjoyed being (12) ______, sitting on the beach, bathing in the sea, and eating ice-cream. Cheap entertainment was (13) ______ offer and holidaymakers went to (14) _______fun.
Today, the English seaside (15) ______ popular, with more than 18 million holidays taken there each year.
A. for 	B. to 	©. on 	D. at
A. let 	B. made 	C. got 	D. dad
A. cured 	B. remedied 	C. recovered 	D. improved
A. raise 	B. spread 	C. increase 	D. add
A. out 	B. off 	C. away 	D. from
A. installed 	B. presented 	C. introduced 	D. brought
A. allowed 	B. provided 	C. offered 	D. opened
A. hardly ever 	B. here and there 	C. seldom 	D. now and then
A. taste 	B. sense 	C. favour 	D. pleasure
A. benefit 	B. opportunity 	C. advantage 	D. profit
A. caused 	B. produced 	C. meant 	D. resulted
A. accommodate 	B. board 	C. cater 	D. lodge
A. idle 	B. easy 	C. restful 	D. spare
A. in 	B. for 	C. to 	D. on
A. get 	B. have 	C. take 	D. make
A. remains 	B. stays 	C. continues 	D. lasts
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question 1-10. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer: (2.0p)
During the nineteenth century, women in the United States organized and participated in a large number of reform movements, including movements to reorganize the prison system, improve education, ban the sale of alcohol, and, most importantly, to free slaves. Some women saw similarities in the social status of women and slaves. Women like Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Lucy Stone were feminists and abolitionists who supported the rights of both women and blacks. A number of male abolitionists, including William Lloyd Garrison and Wendell Philips, also supported the rights of women to speak and participate equally with men in antislavery activities. Probably more than any other movement, abolitionism offered women a previously denied entry into politics. They became involved primarily in order to better their living conditions and the conditions of others. 
When the Civil War ended in 1865, the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments to the Constitution adopted in 1868 and 1870 granted citizenship and suffrage, voting right to blacks but not to women. Discouraged but resolved, feminists influenced more and more women to demand the right to vote. In 1869 the Wyoming Territory had yielded to demands by feminists, but eastern states resisted more stubbornly than before. A women's suffrage bill had been presented to every Congress since 1878 but it continually failed to pass until 1920, when the Nineteenth Amendment granted women the right to vote. 
With what topic is the passage primarily concerned? 
A. The Wyoming Territory 	B. The Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments 
C. Abolitionists 	D. Women's suffrage 
The word "ban" in the first paragraph most nearly means to 
A. encourage 	B. publish 	C. prohibit 	D. limit 
The word "supported" in the first paragraph could best be replaced by 
A. disregarded 	B. acknowledged 	C. contested 	D. promoted 
According to the passage, why did women become active in politics? 
A. To improve the conditions of life that existed at the time 
B. To support Elizabeth Cady Stanton for president 
C. To be elected to public office. 
D. To amend the Declaration of Independence. 
The word, "primarily" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to 
A. above all 	B. somewhat 	C. finally 	D. always
What had occurred shortly after the Civil War? 
A. The Wyoming Territory was admitted to the Union 
B. The women's suffrage bill was introduced in Congress. 
C. The eastern states resisted the end of the war. 
D. Black people were granted the right to vote. 
The word "suffrage" in the second paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following? 
A. pain 	B. citizenship 	C. freedom to bondage D. the right to vote 
What does the Nineteenth Amendment guarantee? 
A. Voting rights for blacks 	B. Citizenship for blacks 
C. Voting rights for women 	D. Citizenship for women 
The word "it" in the second paragraph refers to 
A. bill 	B. Congress 	C. Nineteenth Amendment D. vote 
When were the women allowed to vote throughout the United States? 
A. After 1866 	B. After 1870 	C. After 1878 	D. After 1920 
IV. Fill in each gap with one suitable word. (1.0 p)
A student (1) _______________ English occasionally meets the following problems when he listens to talks or lectures. It is difficult to decide (2) _______________ one word finishes and the next one starts. (3) _______________ speech, many of the sounds (4) _______________ a student difficulty and he fails to identify them. Some words in English, (5) _______________ occurs very commonly, have a weak form. An overseas student identify them with difficulty. In (6) _______________, many students sometimes do not hear the unstressed syllable in a word. This (7) _______________ never arises in print. The lecturer (8) _______________ uses an informal style and who pronounces vowels with (9) _______________ strong accent will be difficult to follow. A student takes notes more easily when the lecturer speaks (10) _______________ a B.B.C accent.
PART. D: WRITING: (5.0P)
I. Finish the second sentence so that it means exactly the same as the first sentence. (1.0 point)
Although I hate cats, I have some in my family. 
àIn spite of ..
The workers only complained because of their unfair treatment. 
àIf the workers ....
She can’t possibly stay up to finish her homework tonight.
àIt is ....
She regrets not giving him my phone number. 
àShe wishes ..
I can finish this work on time only if you help me. 
àOnly if ...
II. Rewrite the following sentences using the words given so that it means exactly the same as the first sentence. (2.0 point)
“I’m sorry I didn’t ring you earlier,” Tom said to you. (apologised)	..
My friend can’t speak English so he can’t apply for the job. (could)
	 ..
The girl living next to me is getting married next year. (who)
 ..
The boy has a determination to study English. (determined)
 ..
People think that our ancestors built this city. (thought)
 ..
They first introduced the new style of jeans in 2000, didn’t they? (was) 
...
Although it rained heavily, we went to Tim’s birthday party. (In spite of) 
... 
Their wedding was held in a very lovely church. (which) 
...
“I don’t mind which film we see.” I said. (matter) 
...
Davis didn’t go out last night because it rained heavily.(if)
...
III. Write a letter to your friend (at least 150 words) to tell him/her about how to protect the environment in our area. (2.0p)
...
--------- The end ---------
PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC - ĐÀO TẠO 
HUYỆN Ý YÊN
ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI
Năm học 2011-2012
Môn: TiÕng Anh Lớp 9
PART A. LISTENING: (3.0p)
I. [1.2 points]
	1-C	2.A	3.D	4.B	5.A	6.C
II. [1.8 points]
	(1) Friday	(2) History	(3) Biology
	(4) fifty-seven	(5) forty-three	(6) Tuesday
	(7) Wednesday	(8) Why study history?	(9) Animal language
PART B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR: (7.0p)
I. Multiple choice: 0.1 point for each correct option
1. B 	2. B 	3. A	4. A 	5. B
6. D 	7. C	8. C 	9. C 	10. D
II. MTC:0.2 point for each correct option
1.B 	2.D 	3.A 	4.C 	5.D
III. Word-form:0.1 point for each correct word.
1. destruction 	2. fewer 	3. pressurizing 	4. limited 
5. truth 	6. recycling 	7. available 	8. implication 
9.developing 	10. pollutants
IV. Verb-form: 0.1 point for each correct answer.
1. was walking 	2. looking 	3. to make 	4. had broken 
5. ran 	6. was joined 	7. were drifting 	8. blowing 
9. was crossing 	10. had been raining
V. Phrasal verbs: 0.25 point for each correct phrasal verb
1. turn off 	2. cut off 	3. taken over 	4. look up
5. see off 	6. came across 7. look for 	8. look after 	
 VI. Mistake correction: 0.1 point for each correct answer
others à other
are à is
steps à step
from à of
controversially à controversial
simply à simple
wonderful à wonder
whom à who
are à were
with à to
PART C. READING: (5.0)
I. Sign understanding: 0.1 point for each correct option
1. B	2. C 	3. D 	4. A	5. B
II. Gap-fill MTC: 0.1 point for each correct option
1. B 	2. A 	3. C 	4. B 	5. C 
6. A 	7. D 	8. A 	9.C 	10. C 
11. A 	12. A 	13. D 	14. B 	15. A
III. Reading comprehension: 0.2 point for each correct option
1. D 	2. C 	3. D 	4. A 	5. A 
6. D 	7. D 	8. C 	9. A 	10. D
IV. Word-filling: 0.1 point for each correct answer.
1. learning/ studying 	2. where 	3. in 	4. cause 
5. which 	6. addition 	7. problem 	8. who 
9. a 	10. with
PART D. WRITING: (5.0p)
I. Complete second sentences: 0.2 point for each correct sentence
In spite of hating cats, I have some in my family./ In spite of the fact that I hate c